Reconciled to God while enemies !

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It is the change of heart that accompanies salvation and becoming born again. And that isn't possible, why, because you say it's not? You would change God's clear words placing your judgment over His, telling Him that He is unable to do what He precisely said He does? So, you disagree with clear Scripture and the power of God, and that is what is "linguistically absurd". You lose creditability with kind of ridiculous position. Do these verses look " linguistically absurd" to you too? You don't think God is capable of carrying them out along with anything else that He desires? Really?

[Eze 36:26-27 KJV
26 A new heart also will I give you, and a new spirit will I put within you: and I will take away the stony heart out of your flesh, and I will give you an heart of flesh.
27 And I will put my spirit within you, and cause you to walk in my statutes, and ye shall keep my judgments, and do [them].
I agree with you that the change of heart is an aspect of salvation. And I didn't say it wasn't possible. My disagreement is not with the Bible. I will believe the Bible, whatever it says.

Okay?

My disagreement is with your interpretation. Naturally, when people disagree with each other's interpretation, the debate shifts to exegetical technique and issues such as language, grammar, historical background, lexical information, and context.

Please read my earlier comments in that light. I'm not saying that the scriptures are linguistically absurd, I'm saying that your interpretation renders them linguistically absurd. Please bear in mind that the Bible is not written in English; it is written in Hebrew, Aramaic, and Greek. We must remember that we are reading the text through the eyes of a translator, who is not infallible and may, occasionally, convey an idea that the author didn't intend.

So what I am saying is that the translator is conveying an idea that the author didn't intend. When Luke writes that God granted Israel repentance, we know that Luke didn't mean to say that God repented for them, or that God is going to act like Israel repented even though they didn't actually repent. He meant that God opened the door for Israel to repent.

Luke will go on to say that some repented, while others threatened to kill Peter.

Okay?
 
I agree with you that the change of heart is an aspect of salvation. And I didn't say it wasn't possible. My disagreement is not with the Bible. I will believe the Bible, whatever it says.

Okay?

My disagreement is with your interpretation. Naturally, when people disagree with each other's interpretation, the debate shifts to exegetical technique and issues such as language, grammar, historical background, lexical information, and context.

Please read my earlier comments in that light. I'm not saying that the scriptures are linguistically absurd, I'm saying that your interpretation renders them linguistically absurd. Please bear in mind that the Bible is not written in English; it is written in Hebrew, Aramaic, and Greek. We must remember that we are reading the text through the eyes of a translator, who is not infallible and may, occasionally, convey an idea that the author didn't intend.

So what I am saying is that the translator is conveying an idea that the author didn't intend. When Luke writes that God granted Israel repentance, we know that Luke didn't mean to say that God repented for them, or that God is going to act like Israel repented even though they didn't actually repent. He meant that God opened the door for Israel to repent.

Luke will go on to say that some repented, while others threatened to kill Peter.

Okay?
Repentance is given Acts 5:31

31 Him hath God exalted with his right hand to be a Prince and a Saviour, for to give repentance to Israel, and forgiveness of sins.

to give is an infinitive meaning:

as well as to reflect purpose or result ("This was done to fulfil what the prophet said").

The giving here causes the one given to, to repent

. the noun denotes something to be done by him to whom it is said to be given: διδόναι τινὶ μετάνοιαν, to cause him to repent, Acts 5:31; Acts 11:18;

So yes you disagree with the scripture
 
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More on Reconciliation explained ! cont 4

Now scripture that teach Subjective Reconciliation by Christ's Death Col 1:21-22

21 And you, that were sometime alienated and enemies in your mind by wicked works, yet now hath he reconciled

22 In the body of his flesh through death, to present you holy and unblameable and unreproveable in his sight:

Now notice here how Paul is attributing Subjective Reconciliation out of being enemies or a state of enmity, to Christ's Death in Vs 22, because he understands that, what he called saved by His Life in Rom 5:10b is but the fruit of Christ's Death, whereby they were reconciled objectively, even while being enemies in their minds and doing hostile works, but because of the communication of His Life, Christ's Death is said to even reconcile them Subjectively out of being alienated and enemies, so again Col 1:22-23 teaches Subjective Reconciliation ! 2
 
I agree with you that the change of heart is an aspect of salvation. And I didn't say it wasn't possible. My disagreement is not with the Bible. I will believe the Bible, whatever it says.

Okay?

My disagreement is with your interpretation. Naturally, when people disagree with each other's interpretation, the debate shifts to exegetical technique and issues such as language, grammar, historical background, lexical information, and context.

Please read my earlier comments in that light. I'm not saying that the scriptures are linguistically absurd, I'm saying that your interpretation renders them linguistically absurd. Please bear in mind that the Bible is not written in English; it is written in Hebrew, Aramaic, and Greek. We must remember that we are reading the text through the eyes of a translator, who is not infallible and may, occasionally, convey an idea that the author didn't intend.

So what I am saying is that the translator is conveying an idea that the author didn't intend. When Luke writes that God granted Israel repentance, we know that Luke didn't mean to say that God repented for them, or that God is going to act like Israel repented even though they didn't actually repent. He meant that God opened the door for Israel to repent.

Luke will go on to say that some repented, while others threatened to kill Peter.

Okay?

A change of the heart is the mechanism through which God grants repentance to someone - there is no other way that for it to occur except as a gift from God, because prior to that change, the heart of natural man is deceitful above all.

The verse is a simple one, needing nothing outside itself to convey its message, nor did I add anything to it but addressed it as-is.
So, you are saying that none of the translations below tell us that God gives (or grants) repentance to someone? That all of the translators got that part of it wrong, but instead that it is actually from/by man's wisdom? Really? If so, then I stand in awe of your exceptional biblical analytical and translation skills being the weekend biblical Greek expert that you are - that you, somehow, were able to see something in them no one else has. Divine intervention, perhaps?
According to my understanding of the various translations, these are regarded by true Bible scholars (not weekend such as yourself) as being some of the most faithful translations to the original texts. Do you see in each, it is made perfectly and completely clear repentance comes from God alone and not from man - this should be obvious to you with no further interpretation or explanation necessary. So, therefore, based upon that, it is you who is linguistically absurd, not me. "dōē autois ho Theos metanoian"

In no particular order:

[2Ti 2:25 ESV] 25 correcting his opponents with gentleness. God may perhaps grant them repentance leading to a knowledge of the truth,

[2Ti 2:25 LSB] 25 with gentleness correcting those who are in opposition, if perhaps God may give them repentance leading to the full knowledge of the truth,

[2Ti 2:25 CSB] 25 instructing his opponents with gentleness. Perhaps God will grant them repentance leading them to the knowledge of the truth.

[2Ti 2:25 AMP] 25 He must correct those who are in opposition with courtesy and gentleness in the hope that God may grant that they will repent and be led to the knowledge of the truth [accurately understanding and welcoming it],

[2Ti 2:25 NKJV] 25 in humility correcting those who are in opposition, if God perhaps will grant them repentance, so that they may know the truth,

[2Ti 2:25 NIV] 25 Opponents must be gently instructed, in the hope that God will grant them repentance leading them to a knowledge of the truth,
 
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A change of the heart is the mechanism through which God grants repentance to someone - there is no other way that for it to occur except as a gift from God, because prior to that change, the heart of natural man is deceitful above all.
If you are saying that a change of heart makes repentance possible, then fine. But the person must actually repent. Why is that not clear? I don't get it.
 
Repentance is given Acts 5:31

31 Him hath God exalted with his right hand to be a Prince and a Saviour, for to give repentance to Israel, and forgiveness of sins.

to give is an infinitive meaning:

as well as to reflect purpose or result ("This was done to fulfil what the prophet said").

The giving here causes the one given to, to repent

. the noun denotes something to be done by him to whom it is said to be given: διδόναι τινὶ μετάνοιαν, to cause him to repent, Acts 5:31; Acts 11:18;

So yes you disagree with the scripture
I am not disagreeing with scripture. I take issue with your interpretation.

Let's break this down into a simple sentence and examine it together.

The phrase "to give repentance to Israel" is a short sentence. Something is being given to someone. The term "repentance" is the noun form of the verb "to repent." If God gave repentance to Israel when did she repent?

In English, repentance means either the act of repenting or the state of having repented; if God literally “gave repentance,” then Israel must have already repented, which is impossible, so the phrase must mean God gave the opportunity to repent, not the repentance itself.
 
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I am not disagreeing with scripture. I take issue with your interpretation.

Let's break this down into a simple sentence and examine it together.

The phrase "to give repentance to Israel" is a short sentence. Something is being given to someone. The term "repentance" is the noun form of the verb "to repent." If God gave repentance to Israel when did she repent?

In English, repentance means either the act of repenting or the state of having repented; if God literally “gave repentance,” then Israel must have already repented, which is impossible, so the phrase must mean God gave the opportunity to repent, not the repentance itself.
When wasn't the opportunity for repentance available? People from the onset of sin could repent. God said as much to Esau.
 
Not really. Again, reconciliation is not one-sided. I don't cease being God's enemy until I cease being God's enemy.

The Bible teaches an existential faith. That is, while Christ died for the whole world, his death doesn't apply to me, personally, unless I surrender, repent, and acknowledge that God has assigned Jesus to be my advocate.
If all men (and women) are "born in sin" than Jesus was born in sin.
 
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If you are saying that a change of heart makes repentance possible,
No such thing as God giving repentance and it merely makes it possible. When God gives or Grants repentance, the person repents and is delivered, recovered, changed 2 Tim 2:25-26

25 In meekness instructing those that oppose themselves; if God peradventure will give them repentance to the acknowledging of the truth;

26 ;And that they may recover themselves out of the snare of the devil, who are taken captive by him at his will.

God gives the conversion experience, not make it possible
 
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I am not disagreeing with scripture. I take issue with your interpretation.
Yes you are disagreeing with scripture in the guise of it being merely my interpretation

The phrase "to give repentance to Israel" is a short sentence. Something is being given to someone. The term "repentance" is the noun form of the verb "to repent." If God gave repentance to Israel when did she repent?
They repent as individuals when its time for them to convert Israel isnt ethnic national israel, its the Church the Body of Christ, and God has a set time when each person of that elect body will be converted, some may not yet be born yet

In English, repentance means either the act of repenting or the state of having repented; if God literally “gave repentance,” then Israel must have already repented, which is impossible, so the phrase must mean God gave the opportunity to repent, not the repentance itself.

Its not national israel in view
 
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