Replacement theology? Yes or No.
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This is about the Gospel going out, first it went to the Jew, my goodness!
Paul didn't insist on the ethnic difference.
As we have explained scripture to you over and over.
See the Bible as one story.
Sure he did. Paul NEVER, not once, identified a gentile as an ethnic Jew.
On the contrary, in every case Paul specified the two groups Jews and gentiles.
Do you actually read your bible? Does you Church have a grudge against the Jews?
Just to let you know, I love the Jews. Love them.
Love the gentiles too. I love all tribes tongues peoples and nations without prejudice.
But understand that the Jews were burdened with vast responsibilities and suffered many judgements that gentiles never experienced.
That makes them special. They are Gods covenant people and THAT makes them special.
The Kingdom was offered to them FIRST and THAT makes them special.
The gospel message of the mystery Bride New Man Church was preached to them FIRST and THAT makes them special.
All of the Apostles were Jewish and walked in the prescence of Christ and THAT makes them special.
The Nation Israel will once again be the chosen Nation to preach to the gentiles in the millennium and THAT makes them special.
Yes, the Jews are special alright, no doubt about it.
Before he died
“These twelve Jesus sent forth, and commanded them, saying, Go not into the way of the Gentiles, and into any city of the Samaritans enter ye not: but go rather to the lost sheep of the house of Israel.”
Matthew 10:5-6 KJV
…..but After he was rejected and raised up
“Afterward he appeared unto the eleven as they sat at meat, and upbraided them with their unbelief and hardness of heart, because they believed not them which had seen him after he was risen. And he said unto them, Go ye into all the world, and preach the gospel to every creature. He that believeth and is baptized shall be saved; but he that believeth not shall be damned.”
Mark 16:14-16 KJV
And of course paul was later chosen and empowered with the spirit by Jesus as another witness to all people.
The gospel definately came to Israel and then after they rejected him to the world
“On the contrary, in every case Paul specified the two groups Jews and gentiles.”
pauls epistle to the Roman church
“For there is no difference between the Jew and the Greek: for the same Lord over all is rich unto all that call upon him.”
Romans 10:12 KJV
“For I am not ashamed of the gospel of Christ: for it is the power of God unto salvation to every one that believeth;
to the Jew first, and also to the Greek.”
Romans 1:16 KJV
“But after thy hardness and impenitent heart treasurest up unto thyself wrath against the day of wrath and revelation of the righteous judgment of God; Who will render to every man according to his deeds: to them who by patient continuance in well doing seek for glory and honour and immortality, eternal life: but unto them that are contentious, and do not obey the truth, but obey unrighteousness, indignation and wrath, tribulation and anguish, upon every soul of man that doeth evil, of the Jew first, and also of the Gentile; but glory, honour, and peace, to every man that worketh good, to the Jew first, and also to the Gentile:
for there is no respect of persons with God.”
Romans 2:5-11 KJV
“It is not as though God’s word had failed. For not all who are descended from Israel are Israel. Nor because they are his descendants are they all Abraham’s children. On the contrary, “It is through Isaac that your offspring will be reckoned.”
In other words, it is not the children by physical descent who are God’s children, but it is the children of the promise who are regarded as Abraham’s offspring.”
Romans 9:6-8 NIV
Paul’s epistles to the Galatian church
“There is neither Jew nor Greek, there is neither bond nor free, there is neither male nor female: for ye are all one in Christ Jesus. And if ye be Christ's, then are ye Abraham's seed, and heirs according to the promise.”
Galatians 3:28-
Paul’s epistle to the Colossian church
“where there is neither Greek nor Jew, circumcision nor uncircumcision, Barbarian, Scythian, bond nor free: but Christ is all, and in all.”
Colossians 3:11
“Is he the God of the Jews only? is he not also of the Gentiles? Yes, of the Gentiles also:”
Romans 3:29 KJV
At one time israel was the only people with a covenant from the lord , it’s not so now . Now anyone who accepts the gospel enters a blood covenant with god based on his words. There’s absolutely nothing different better or worse about anyone’s flesh it’s all corrupt …… it’s receiving the spirit that includes us in his people
We treat all humans same, either for Jesus, or against Jesus. We don't separate people by ethnicity.
Wonderful, love is in Jesus. Jesus is love. We love a child, a man, a woman so we refuse to perform sex exchange on them, this is true love. Hope you understand the metaphor.
This is wonderful. All should repent and follow Jesus.
Even if so, it does not give them right to murder, steal, reject Jesus.
Did you happen count the number of times the terms "Jew" and "gentile" were used in your post?
Thanks for confirming what I stated earlier BTW.
"Paul NEVER, not once, identified a gentile as an ethnic Jew."
“On the contrary, in every case Paul specified the two groups Jews and gentiles.”
What are you going on about? Post tribulation believers also believe in harpazo, but only according to what Jesus said, not your convoluted spaghetti doctrine of pre-trib rapture.
John 6:39 And this is the will of him who sent me, that I shall lose none of all those he has given me, but raise them up at the last day.
It's simple because Jesus didn't want to confuse anyone with long explanations, extra biblical suppositions and ridiculous amounts of charts. We need that time instead to gird up our faith to endure the great tribulation, say no to the antichrist and the mark of the beast, and be executed with dignity to go home to the Lord.
You haven't proved pretrib rapture - it hasn't happened and it's not in the Bible. It is a twisting of Bible passages to get that teaching to fit.
You refuse to believe that Jesus will collect us AFTER THE GREAT TRIBULATION, and He won't go before that like you hope. You will go through the great tribulation, but you won't be ready to endure.
And here you go: the biblically literate and correct answer....
The claim that Matthew 16:28 was fulfilled by the destruction of Jerusalem in AD 70 is not demanded by the text and is extremely difficult to sustain in context.
The issue is not whether some disciples survived until AD 70. The question is:
What event does Matthew himself place immediately after this prediction?
The answer is the Transfiguration.
Jesus says that some standing there would see the Son of Man in His Kingdom glory. Then:
The prophecy is given.
Six days pass.
Jesus selects exactly three of those standing there.
They literally see Christ unveiled in supernatural royal glory.
That fits Matthew 16:28 remarkably well.
Matthew 16:28 and 17:1 belong together
The modern chapter division can obscure the connection. Read them continuously:
Nothing in Matthew 16:28 mentions Jerusalem, Rome, Titus, the Temple's destruction, or a covenantal transfer in AD 70.
Instead, Matthew immediately gives us a visible manifestation of Christ's glory.
Peter himself explains the Transfiguration
Peter later writes:
Notice Peter's language:
“power and coming”
“eyewitnesses”
“majesty”
“honour and glory”
Peter explicitly associates the Transfiguration with the glory of Christ's coming.
The Transfiguration was therefore a preview or prophetic manifestation of the future Messianic Kingdom.
Peter does not point to AD 70.
He points to the holy mountain.
Mark and Luke make the connection equally clear
Mark records:
Then immediately:
Luke likewise says:
Then:
Luke specifically links the timing of the Transfiguration to “these sayings.”
All three Synoptic Gospels therefore place the Transfiguration immediately after this prophecy.
That is powerful contextual evidence.
“Some standing here” favors the Transfiguration
The objection is sometimes raised:
But Jesus did not say that only a few would survive.
He said some standing there would see the manifestation.
And exactly that occurs.
From the larger group Jesus selects:
Peter, James and John.
Those three see what the others do not.
The distinction is therefore between those who would see the vision and those who would not, not necessarily between those who would live and those who would die.
Matthew 16:27 gives the larger context
The preceding verse is crucial:
That is plainly eschatological.
Christ comes:
in the Father's glory,
with His angels,
and rewards every man.
That did not happen in AD 70.
There was no universal resurrection, no universal judgment, and no rewarding of every man according to his works.
Verse 28 therefore naturally means:
Some of you are about to receive an advance preview of that glory.
Six days later, they do.
Matthew 16:27 is the future reality.
Matthew 16:28–17:8 is the preview.
AD 70 does not resemble the promised Kingdom
The preterist interpretation requires:
“the Son of man coming in his kingdom”
to mean:
Roman armies destroying Jerusalem.
But the Transfiguration actually contains the proper imagery:
Christ glorified.
Christ radiant.
Christ majestic.
Glorified saints present.
The Father authenticating the Son.
Disciples literally seeing Him.
Which event better satisfies:
The answer is evident from the narrative.
Furthermore, the OT Messianic Kingdom includes things that plainly did not begin in AD 70:
AD 70 produced almost the exact opposite:
- Messiah ruling from Zion — Isaiah 2:1–4; 11:1–10
- Israel restored spiritually and nationally — Ezekiel 36–37
- Jerusalem exalted, not destroyed — Zechariah 14
- Worldwide knowledge of the LORD — Isaiah 11:9
- Nations coming to Jerusalem to worship — Zechariah 14:16
- Israel dwelling securely under Messiah — Ezekiel 37:21–28
Jerusalem was devastated.
The Temple was destroyed.
Israel was dispersed.
Gentile domination continued.
Messiah did not visibly reign from Jerusalem.
The nations did not stream to Zion.
Worldwide peace did not begin.
Calling AD 70 the beginning of the promised Messianic Kingdom therefore reverses the prophetic picture.
Jesus Himself places Jerusalem's judgment before future restoration
Jesus said:
Jerusalem's destruction and subjugation therefore belong to a continuing period of Gentile domination, not the consummation of the Messianic Kingdom.
Likewise:
There remains a future recognition of Messiah.
The contextual sequence is straightforward
Matthew 16:27 — Christ describes His future glorious coming.
Matthew 16:28 — He promises that some standing there will see the Son of Man in Kingdom glory.
Matthew 17:1–2 — six days later Peter, James and John see Christ transfigured in supernatural majesty.
2 Peter 1:16–18 — Peter later describes that very event as an eyewitness revelation of Christ's “power and coming” and His “majesty.”
No forty-year leap to AD 70 is required.
No Roman army needs to become “the Son of Man.”
No destruction of Jerusalem needs to be renamed the establishment of the Messianic Kingdom.
The inspired narrative supplies the explanation six days later.
The Transfiguration was not the actual establishment of the Millennium. It was a proleptic preview of the glory of the future King and His Kingdom.
The preterist says:
But Scripture never says that.
Scripture does explicitly record Peter, James and John seeing Christ manifested in royal glory immediately after Jesus made the promise.
And Peter later tells us what that experience represented:
“the power and coming of our Lord Jesus Christ”
because they had been
“eyewitnesses of his majesty.”
That is not a dispensational escape hatch.
It is simply allowing Matthew 17 to explain Matthew 16:28, and allowing Peter himself to explain what he saw.
Jesus also speaks a similar manner when he is on trial before the high priest.
Matthew 26:64
Jesus saith unto him, Thou hast said: nevertheless I say unto you, Hereafter shall ye see the Son of man sitting on the right hand of power, and coming in the clouds of heaven.
This is after His transfiguration.
What is he predicting that the high priest is going to see?
If the "Son of man coming in his kingdom" (from Mathew 16:28) is the transfiguration of Christ, that might not help your futuristic Elijah prediction. and
It also raises some questions about Jesus' kingdom.
Where is Jesus kingdom seen in the transfiguration, and what is it?
Well Jesus tells us what it is not (John 18:36), and it is not the old covenant nation.
As king of the Jews (John 18:33) and king of the world (Revelations 11:15), He willingly leaves Jerusalem in the hands of the Pharisees.
John 18:36
Jesus answered, My kingdom is not of this world: if my kingdom were of this world, then would my servants fight, that I should not be delivered to the Jews: but now is my kingdom not from hence.
After Jesus ascension we are told that Jesus has entered into His kingdom already:
Acts 2:33
Therefore being by the right hand of God exalted, and having received of the Father the promise of the Holy Ghost, he hath shed forth this, which ye now see and hear.
So if there is an event where Jesus can be said to be "coming in His kingdom" and some of the disciples and Pharisees are still alive to see it, where can it be found?
The most obvious place seems to be the 7th trumpet.
Revelations 10:7 But in the days of the voice of the seventh angel, when he shall begin to sound, the mystery of God should be finished, as he hath declared to his servants the prophets.
So what "mystery of God" is to be finished (fulfilled) with the 7th trumpet?
There is the mystery of Christ and the New Covenant church (Ephesians 6:19), and the mystery of an everlasting spiritual Israel that was hidden and excluded from national Israel (Colossians 1:26).
Reading through into Revelations 11 there is a lot of build up leading to the 7th trumpet, so it must be an important event.
The Jewish temple is not yet destroyed, and with the worshipers inside it is "measured" (probably marked for destruction), but the court outside is left for the "Gentiles" (Romans) who are not measured, "and the holy city shall they tread under foot forty and two months".
From chronology of the war according to Josephus 7:
"There were many false prophets at the time, says Josephus, yet people had not paid attention to the genuine signs of destruction: a star resembling a sword standing over the city, a comet, a brilliant light around the altar, a vision of armed battalions in the sky, and voices in the Temple, along with the prophecies of a peasant crying 'Woe to Jerusalem.' "It is impossible for men to escape their fate, even though they foresee it."
Jerusalem is tried before 2 witnesses according to the law, bearing the signs of Moses.
Jerusalem is also identified in v.8.
Revelations 11:15 And the seventh angel sounded; and there were great voices in heaven, saying, The kingdoms of this world are become the kingdoms of our Lord, and of his Christ; and he shall reign for ever and ever.
This is the event we are looking for, the Son of Man coming in His kingdom.
Jerusalem is NOT the kingdom of Christ, it is the Sodom and Egypt that He escaped from.
It represents the old covenant, and the curses for breaking it.
The fall of Jerusalem marks the rise of the kingdom of Christ.
Notice also that His kingdom is eternal, not limited by time.
The 7th trumpet is literal in the fall of Jerusalem, but spiritual and foreshadowing in Christ's second coming.
Just as Jerusalem was judged, so shall the whole world be judged,
"There were many false prophets at the time, says Josephus, yet people had not paid attention to the genuine signs of destruction: a star resembling a sword standing over the city, a comet, a brilliant light around the altar, a vision of armed battalions in the sky, and voices in the Temple, along with the prophecies of a peasant crying 'Woe to Jerusalem.' "It is impossible for men to escape their fate, even though they foresee it."
Jerusalem is tried before 2 witnesses according to the law, bearing the signs of Moses.
Jerusalem is also identified in v.8.
Revelations 11:15 And the seventh angel sounded; and there were great voices in heaven, saying, The kingdoms of this world are become the kingdoms of our Lord, and of his Christ; and he shall reign for ever and ever.
This is the event we are looking for, the Son of Man coming in His kingdom.
Jerusalem is NOT the kingdom of Christ, it is the Sodom and Egypt that He escaped from.
It represents the old covenant, and the curses for breaking it.
The fall of Jerusalem marks the rise of the kingdom of Christ.
Notice also that His kingdom is eternal, not limited by time.
The 7th trumpet is literal in the fall of Jerusalem, but spiritual and foreshadowing in Christ's second coming.
Just as Jerusalem was judged, so shall the whole world be judged,
As you can clearly see, the pre-trib rapture is absolutely irrefutable boilerplate doctrine beyond all refutation.What are you going on about? Post tribulation believers also believe in harpazo, but only according to what Jesus said, not your convoluted spaghetti doctrine of pre-trib rapture.
John 6:39 And this is the will of him who sent me, that I shall lose none of all those he has given me, but raise them up at the last day.
It's simple because Jesus didn't want to confuse anyone with long explanations, extra biblical suppositions and ridiculous amounts of charts. We need that time instead to gird up our faith to endure the great tribulation, say no to the antichrist and the mark of the beast, and be executed with dignity to go home to the Lord.
You haven't proved pretrib rapture - it hasn't happened and it's not in the Bible. It is a twisting of Bible passages to get that teaching to fit.
You refuse to believe that Jesus will collect us AFTER THE GREAT TRIBULATION, and He won't go before that like you hope. You will go through the great tribulation, but you won't be ready to endure.
And yes, I also understand that the incidentally and willfully biblically illiterate fail to reconcile and harmonize the compendium of Scripture.
United to the redeemer before crisis → Asenath, Ruth, Rebekah, Zipporah, Abigail
I believe that whole world was judged at the cross and a complete atonement was made... and there is only individual judgement at death only.
The reason your chain of verses doesn’t prove a first‑century fulfillment is because you’re merging two different “comings” that Jesus Himself keeps separate:
Matthew 16:28 refers to the preview (the Transfiguration), while
Matthew 16:27 and Revelation 22:12 refer to the consummation (the final return with angels and judgment), and
John 18:36 refers to the nature of His kingdom (not sourced from earthly power), not the timing of His appearing;
The NT never collapses preview, consummation, and kingdom‑nature into one event, and your question “And this all happened when…?” only sounds forceful because you’re assuming they must all happen together, but Jesus explicitly distinguishes them — He gives the preview six days later (Matt 17), He promises the consummation at the end of the age (Matt 24:30–31), and He defines the kingdom’s origin as heavenly rather than geopolitical (John 18:36); so yes, the glorious day is coming, amen, but the texts you’re stitching together do not describe one single moment — they describe three different categories, and the apostles never treat them as simultaneous.
This argument collapses because it repeatedly confuses Christ’s present exaltation with the future manifestation of His kingdom, misidentifies the Transfiguration, misreads John 18:36, and then imports AD 70 into Revelation without textual warrant.
First, Matthew 16:28 does not require AD 70:
Matthew immediately follows this with the Transfiguration (Matt. 17:1–8). Peter himself later interprets that event as a preview of Christ’s future royal glory:
The Transfiguration was therefore not the final establishment of the kingdom. It was a proleptic preview of the glory of the coming King. Moses and Elijah appear with the glorified Christ precisely because the scene anticipates His messianic kingdom.
That does not damage a future Elijah expectation whatsoever. Jesus says immediately afterward:
Then He distinguishes that future fulfillment from John the Baptist’s analogous ministry (17:12–13). The text itself preserves both.
Second, Matthew 26:64 absolutely does not predict that Caiaphas would necessarily remain physically alive until Christ's return:
Jesus is deliberately combining Psalm 110:1 and Daniel 7:13–14.
Daniel's Son of Man receives an everlasting dominion over “all people, nations, and languages.” Christ is telling His judges that the One they presently condemn will ultimately appear as their divine Judge.
Caiaphas will indeed see Him—at resurrection and judgment if not before. Nothing in the statement requires AD 70.
Third, John 18:36 is badly abused:
The Greek idea is not that Christ’s kingdom will never operate upon the earth, but that its source and authority are not from this present world-order.
Jesus says:
If “not of this world” meant “never an earthly kingdom,” then the prophets become unintelligible.
Zechariah declares:
Isaiah places Messiah upon David’s throne (Isa. 9:6–7).
Jeremiah connects His reign with Judah saved and Israel dwelling safely (Jer. 23:5–6).
Gabriel says explicitly:
John 18:36 denies that Christ’s kingdom originates from the rebellious world-system; it does not cancel the Abrahamic and Davidic covenants.
Fourth, Acts 2 proves Christ's exaltation, not that every promised aspect of the Davidic kingdom has already been exhaustively fulfilled.
Peter says Christ is presently at God's right hand—but he also quotes:
That until matters.
The exalted King is presently seated at the Father's right hand while awaiting the future subjugation of His enemies.
Peter later says:
That is virtually fatal to realized-preterist reasoning. Christ remains in heaven until the prophetic restoration arrives.
Fifth, the claim that Revelation 11 is AD 70 simply assumes what it needs to prove.
Revelation 11:15 says:
Did that visibly occur in AD 70?
Did Rome become Christ's obedient kingdom?
Was Satan bound?
Were the saints resurrected?
Did Christ begin ruling the nations with the openly manifested authority described in Revelation 19–20?
Obviously not.
The seventh trumpet belongs to Revelation's climactic sequence, not merely Jerusalem's destruction.
And the “mystery of God” in Revelation 10:7 cannot simply be redefined as “the Church replacing national Israel.” Paul expressly warns against precisely such arrogance:
The mystery there is not Israel's annihilation but Israel's temporary partial blindness.
The biblical sequence is remarkably coherent:
Messiah rejected → Messiah exalted → Church gathered → Israel temporarily blinded → Israel repents → Messiah returns → enemies judged → Israel restored → King reigns.
Zechariah 12–14, Matthew 23:39, Acts 3:19–21, Romans 11:25–29, and Revelation 19–20 all fit this sequence naturally.
Preterism must instead compress Christ's glorious return, resurrection, judgment, Israel's restoration, and worldwide kingdom into the Roman destruction of Jerusalem.
That is not harmonizing Scripture.
It is replacing the plain prophetic sequence with AD 70 and then forcing every text into it.
Textural warrant for AD70 in Revelation was given.
The AD95 theory comes from sources outside the Bible.
John 18:36 is understood rightly as far as I know at this time.
Satan "bound"does not mean disabled, it means limited to allow the gospel to reach all nations.
A dog that is tethered can bite very hard.
Here is the event of Satan becoming "bound" in Revelation 12, the chapter that takes us back in time:
Revelation 12:7 And there was war in heaven: Michael and his angels fought against the dragon; and the dragon fought and his angels,
8 And prevailed not; neither was their place found any more in heaven.
9 And the great dragon was cast out, that old serpent, called the Devil, and Satan, which deceiveth the whole world: he was cast out into the earth, and his angels were cast out with him.
10 And I heard a loud voice saying in heaven, Now is come salvation, and strength, and the kingdom of our God, and the power of his Christ: for the accuser of our brethren is cast down, which accused them before our God day and night.
Satan is no longer an accuser in heaven, as he was in the book of Job.
Yes, Jesus was personally involved in the destruction of Jerusalem, the kingdom of His enemies.
He will be personally involved with the destruction of the whole world, and that also will be associated with Christ glorious return.
I know that none of this sits comfortably with you,
But it is the millennial earthly reign theory that was forced into the scriptures without warrant.
This doctrine does nothing to accommodate any everlasting promise in scripture, but after the imaginary interval is over we are just back to the original schedule.
You may want Jesus to take earthly Jerusalem as a second temporary wife, but Jesus is already married,
How will you persuade Him when He has already made it so clear that He does not want the horrible old slut?
