Replacement theology? Yes or No.

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Genez said:
Abraham was a gentile.
Later on, God reached him, and Abraham became a Hebrew (meaning, one who crossed over the river).
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Ahh ….. yes it was inherited from his descendant but that’s my whole point abram/ abraham father of many nations is the first Hebrew he wasn’t a gentile he’s who those henrews promises of Christ ….. came from


everyone who isn’t if the faith or enthnicity of the bloodline of the Jews ( (Abraham the Hebrews bloodline is where jews came from ) everyone else is considered gentile, it literally never existed until jews came forward and literally means “ any and all non Jew “


Abraham was never seperete from Israel’s promises they came through him to them his descendants ……..gentiles are seperate from them ethnically which mattered very much in the ot , less conversions of strangers …….he seperated abraham the Hebrews offspring and chose them……….in the ot and made a covenant with them all the promises through them ect came later to the gentiles through Jesus Christ the son of Abraham the Hebrew ……

“And there came one that had escaped, and told Abram the Hebrew; for he dwelt in the plain of Mamre the Amorite, brother of Eshcol, and brother of Aner: and these were confederate with Abram.”
‭‭Genesis‬ ‭14:13‬

“Neither shall thy name any more be called Abram, but thy name shall be Abraham; for a father of many nations have I made thee.”
‭‭Genesis‬ ‭17:5‬ ‭KJV‬‬

hebrews are gods people according to the flesh it’s always been so
 
HeIsHere said:
John the Apostle

1 John 2:18

“Children, it is the last hour… even now many antichrists have come.”

Revelation 1:1

“Things which must shortly take place.”

Revelation 22:6

“Things which must soon take place.”

Revelation 22:10

“The time is near.”
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You're a prime example of why I use A.I. to repeat myself without having to exert the same energy all over again:

There are many "last hours".

There are many "latter days" and "in the last days".

There are many prophecies "which must soon take place".

That's where prophetic telescoping comes in.

Every single one of those chapters you mention show a near future event and a far future event in the same chapters.

The question is, why aren't you able to recognize it? Is it because of the way you've been taught by the Catholic church? Do you have the Holy Spirit to be able to recognize it?
 
WayneNSO said:
I could of sworn you said in a previous post that you used AI - I must be mistaken - There was no need to pull your hair out over my comment though - it was not an attack :O
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It's true. He has used both. He defends it when he uses it (I've seen the arguments in defense of it) and he bashes it when it works against him and his views.
 
Pilgrimshope said:
Ahh ….. yes it was inherited from his descendant but that’s my whole point abram/ abraham father of many nations is the first Hebrew he wasn’t a gentile he’s who those henrews promises of Christ ….. came from


everyone who isn’t if the faith or enthnicity of the bloodline of the Jews ( (Abraham the Hebrews bloodline is where jews came from ) everyone else is considered gentile, it literally never existed until jews came forward and literally means “ any and all non Jew “


Abraham was never seperete from Israel’s promises they came through him to them his descendants ……..gentiles are seperate from them ethnically which mattered very much in the ot , less conversions of strangers …….he seperated abraham the Hebrews offspring and chose them……….in the ot and made a covenant with them all the promises through them ect came later to the gentiles through Jesus Christ the son of Abraham the Hebrew ……

“And there came one that had escaped, and told Abram the Hebrew; for he dwelt in the plain of Mamre the Amorite, brother of Eshcol, and brother of Aner: and these were confederate with Abram.”
‭‭Genesis‬ ‭14:13‬

“Neither shall thy name any more be called Abram, but thy name shall be Abraham; for a father of many nations have I made thee.”
‭‭Genesis‬ ‭17:5‬ ‭KJV‬‬

hebrews are gods people according to the flesh it’s always been so
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Abraham is Hebrew by lineage, Chaldean by origin, father of Israel by descent, and father of many nations by promise.
 
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OMC said:
Haha, I didn't finish your question before answering another, my bad. Genesis gives Shem a full genealogy and lifespan (Genesis 11:10–11) while Melchizedek appears with no genealogy, no father, no mother, no beginning of days, no end of life (Hebrews 7:3), which is the exact opposite of Shem’s recorded lineage; the only real argument for Shem is that he lived long enough to overlap Abraham chronologically, but Hebrews uses Melchizedek’s lack of recorded ancestry as a theological point, meaning the Shem identification collapses because Shem’s ancestry is recorded.
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Their argument on Hebrew 7 :3 is that is figuratively speaking. But anyway I am ok with either explanation.
 
OMC said:
I have never done such a thing. Prove your accusations
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I'm not going to go dig through every post you've made on other threads. You have defended, at the very least, others reasons for using it. This is the FIRST time I've seen you bash it and it's only because I've used it to explain away your arguments.
 
Churchgoer said:
Their argument on Hebrew 7 :3 is that is figuratively speaking. But anyway I am ok with either explanation.
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Yeah, "Melchizedek" is a title meaning "king of righteousness". I believe he was Shem. But the title is used as a symbol for the eternal presence of The King of Righteousness who is Christ.

We may even examine Jesus and conclude He cannot don the title because he has a birth date and death date and a mother and brothers. But the Spirit in Him, Christ, has always been: there is no beginning nor end of Him. Christ has no peer, although He may include, in Himself, anyone He calls.

That's how I understand it.
 
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Revelation1v8 said:
I'm not going to go dig through every post you've made on other threads. You have defended, at the very least, others reasons for using it. This is the FIRST time I've seen you bash it and it's only because I've used it to explain away your arguments.
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Again PROOF PLEASE
 
Revelation1v8 said:
I'm not going to go dig through every post you've made on other threads. You have defended, at the very least, others reasons for using it. This is the FIRST time I've seen you bash it and it's only because I've used it to explain away your arguments.
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It was you and I that tested AI's answers and found it lacking. I warned you then about how you were using it and you ignored me.
 
Aaron56 said:
Yeah, "Melchizedek" is a title meaning "king of righteousness". I believe he was Shem. But the title is used as a symbol for the eternal presence of The King of Righteousness who is Christ.

We may even examine Jesus and conclude He cannot don the title because he has a birth date and death date and a mother and brothers. But the Spirit in Him, Christ, has always been: there is no beginning nor end of Him. Christ has no peer, although He may include, in Himself, anyone He calls.

That's how I understand it.
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I agree.
Jesus in a way has no earthly father, mother like us.
Priests can only come from levit line.
So Jesus and melchezedec have similarity.
 
OMC said:
It was you and I that tested AI's answers and found it lacking. I warned you then about how you were using it and you ignored me.
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The only thing we discussed is that when people use A.I. they should tell it to give them "Bible answers only" so it uses the Bible itself as the backup to the scriptures instead of interpretations from all over the internet.
 
Churchgoer said:
During Abram time, the term gentile is not in picture yet.
The term Hebrew neither.

Time, place, people.

But we know Abram is from today Iran/ Iraq area, ur.
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Until there were Jews, there was no need for the term "gentile."

It appears the term "Hebrew" was thought of retrospectively.
For as far as Abraham was concerned?
He was still Abram simply crossing the river.
 
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