Hi DD.
If you do not mind me saying so I can see that you are upset.
Maybe it would have been wiser to address the angst you feel behind the scenes.
But I say this only on the premise that you could do so.
It's interesting to note the word "begotten" as found in
John 3:16
16 For God so loved the world that He gave His only begotten Son, that whoever believes in Him should not perish but have everlasting life.
Which I think is on the KJV, NKJV, & the NASB.
Yet we find
John 3:16
16 “For God loved the world so much that he gave his one and only Son, so that everyone who believes in him will not perish but have eternal life.
As per other translations.
The issue is this word
monogenes. Which the Greek translates as begotten.
The following is from the NKJV study notes.
(Gk. ho monogenes huios) (1:18; 3:16, 18; 1 John 4:9) Strong’s #3439; 5207: The Greek word for only begotten suggests a one and only son; it does not necessarily convey the idea of a birth. For example, Isaac is called Abraham’s only begotten in Heb. 11:17 and in the Septuagint, the Greek OT (see Gen. 22:2, 12, 16), when actually Abraham had two sons: Ishmael and Isaac. The Son of God is the Father’s one and only, His unique Son. Although the Father has begotten many children through the new birth (1:12, 13), none of these are exactly like Jesus Christ, the unique Son of God. His Sonship is from eternity. As the unique Son of God, He has a special glory and an unrivaled place of honor.
The above is also explained as the same in the study notes of those verses that do not use the word "begotten"
I already have the following in my library but rather than copy and paste it I will give the link that I copy and pasted the text into my library.
https://www.gotquestions.org/only-begotten-son.html
What's your thoughts?