Some truth about speaking in tongues, the Holy Ghost, spiritual gifts and 1 Corinthians 14

no one here said that please take your red herring and strawman somewhere else thank you. You just have attacks and insults please move on or go. Thank you[/QUOT

Sir, my questions are serious. And i dont ask for for to have Fun with it.
But the way I got the answers, Shows me that nobody can give answers to my questions. Why then somebody should follow your pentecostal/ charismatic teachings, which are not taught in bible to believers nor in churchhistory Till 1900?
If you believe it it is your Thing. But you should not sell it as truth which deceives and confuse believers.

I have seen the question asked I have not seen the statement made. That being said, the motives to interject someone else comments, and try to tie into my comments because lacking the ability to refute the Biblical position is wrong. The person brought it up and fully knows I would never say that. So why bring it up? Red Herring and Strawman.

If you talk about me. My post was adessed to Kelby. Why you then give the answer?

actually, I asked you a question, about the Trinity which you answered and started our dialog. I will stop and not post back to you.

The different to the doctrine about the trinity is, that the discussions about it you can find during the churchhistory.
The doctrine that speaking in tongues is the proof that somebody received the Holy Spirit/ baptised with the Holy Spirit/ filled with the Holy Spirit. You cant find during the churchhistory.
Yes, i got answers, but nobody was able to show me where this was teached till 1901.
Otherwise I would not need to ask.

Ok, so church history stopped? and where did the initial evidence doctrine come from? did they base it off a 1901 book? or the book of Acts?

Good morning, my questions are still unanswered. Why we cant find this teaching, that speaking in tongues is the proof to be filled with the spirit/ baptised with the Holy spirit not taught to believers in the NT and churchhistory, till around 1900 ad?
Why teaches Paul clear that not all christians will get the Gift of speaking in tongues( 1. Cor.12,30).?
Have a blessed Day.

All four outpourings of the Holy Ghost recorded in the bible involved an observable sign. 3 times speaking in tongues is named specifically. And in the 4th example it is something given at laying on of hands that made it obvious to onlookers that the Holy Ghost had just been given and received . Speaking in tongues fits this description per Acts 19.

As long as you are willing to disregard these facts, it is easy to "change" what receiving of the Holy Ghost is like to match whatever you'd like.

On the other hand, if you seek for the Holy Ghost that matches the biblical accounts, you get the same Holy Ghost as was given in the 4 biblical accounts.

All four outpourings of the Holy Ghost recorded in the bible involved an observable sign. 3 times speaking in tongues is named specifically. And in the 4th example it is something given at laying on of hands that made it obvious to onlookers that the Holy Ghost had just been given and received . Speaking in tongues fits this description per Acts 19.

As long as you are willing to disregard these facts, it is easy to "change" what receiving of the Holy Ghost is like to match whatever you'd like.

On the other hand, if you seek for the Holy Ghost that matches the biblical accounts, you get the same Holy Ghost as was given in the 4 biblical accounts.

No, of course not. But it wonders me that such a important doctrine appear in 1901, but not before.
All important doctrines was discussed from beginning, so far i know.
But this teaching is not found.
That the work of the Holy Spirit was neglectet in the churchhistory is no question. That the Holy Spirit gives spirituell gifts today is no question.

But i still cant find this teaching taught to believers ore claimed from anybody.

So is it wrong to doubt to this teaching?

All 4 examples you find in acts. Right?
These 4 "examples" you can also see as an onetime event for special groups ( samaritians,gentiles and followers of John the baptist) for to show the fourth group (jejewsthat the Gospel is also for the from the jews not acceptet groups.
And no one in NT, ore churchhistory tsught this. Even those who mentioned in churchhistory that there is tonguespeaking taught this ore claimed this teaching for himself.
This way you can't find this teaching not before 1900. My question is: Why you cant find this teaching before?

Your welcome😊
There is no teaching in acts. There is something what you teach out of acts. That there is a trinity, you find in several books of the bible(without useing this word of course) Your teaching is a man made doctrine which cant find in any biblical book taught to believers, nor you can find in churchhistory.

Man does not seek the Holy Spirit. Never has and never will.

Ro 3:11 There is none that understandeth, there is none that seeketh after God.

God does the seeking not man.

For the cause of Christ
Roger

The different to the doctrine about the trinity is, that the discussions about it you can find during the churchhistory.
The doctrine that speaking in tongues is the proof that somebody received the Holy Spirit/ baptised with the Holy Spirit/ filled with the Holy Spirit. You cant find during the churchhistory.
Yes, i got answers, but nobody was able to show me where this was teached till 1901.
Otherwise I would not need to ask.

Man does not seek the Holy Spirit. Never has and never will.

Ro 3:11 There is none that understandeth, there is none that seeketh after God.

God does the seeking not man.

For the cause of Christ
Roger

wrong !!!!! Jesus said to go and wait until you receive power from on high.