How is the KJV corrupt?

The faith of Jesus Christ justifies the believer. The faith of Jesus Christ points to his work he accomplished on the cross. It’s a matter of whose faith justifies.

Galatians 2:16 Knowing that a man is not justified by the works of the law, but by the faith of Jesus Christ, even we have believed in Jesus Christ, that we might be justified by the faith of Christ, and not by the works of the law: for by the works of the law shall no flesh be justified.

as far as "is kjv perfect" it only takes a very simple illustration.

there is no such thing as a farthing in Hebrew culture. a farthing was absolutely never used in Israel, ever, in no uncertain terms. never.

the farthing was only used in Great Britain from the 1200's to 1961, and was worth 1/960th of a British pound-sterling.
its value fluctuated over time.

kjv says "are not two sparrows sold for a farthing?"for Matthew 10:29

well today the answer is no. absolutely not. there is no such thing as a farthing. in Israel, there was never any such thing as a farthing.
never.



the actual word is Matthew 10:29 is "assarion" which was a coin issued in Greek-speaking areas of the Roman empire.
it likewise is no longer in circulation today.
two sparrows today, if you wanted to buy some, cost more than $300. way more than a a thousandth of a dollar.
the kjv estimate of monetary value is simply inaccurate. there is no way to deny that. there is no way a monetary value can remain accurate over all time, because specific monetary values fluctuate.

IMO the proper thing to do when translating Matthew 10:29 is leave the name of the coin alone. just put 'assarion' -- i have to look up what a farthing is, just like i have to look up what a farthing is. i have to make some kind of calculation to figure out what that means in my context. farthing isn't correct. Jesus certainly never had a farthing in his hand.

therefore the kjv is not perfect ((IMO)) -- end of story, as far as i'm concerned.



i know that is a very picky and small thing.
but if anyone is going to make the claim that the kjv is 100% perfect, then the slightest flaw will contradict such a claim.

do i read kjv? yes. do i think kjv is largely superior to most modern translations? yes.
do i consider kjv to be the 100% perfect translations and any other translation a work of Satan on principle?
wow, no.

You have a challenge being respectful. Don’t be a jackdonkey.

When I was first saved, I went to every meeting and conference that I could. That was not as often as I liked, because I was in the Navy and overseas a lot. Most preachers used the KJV at the time. People were still praying thous and thees. Most times people preached, sometime in the message they would feel the need to explain what the KJV meant. Like this gem, "My bowels boiled, and rested not: the days of affliction prevented me." What? Did Job have gastroenteritis? Maybe indigestion? Boiling bowels sounds like a serious health problem.

So I determined to find a translation that did not require me a theological degree in order to understand it. I had several versions, eventually settling on the NASB. Now I use Bible Hub. If I must, I check out the literal translation.

That is of very small value or price is called farthing. It doesn't really necessary to find its value since we know it fluctuated from time to time. While it is true that farthing is used only in Britain as 1/4 of a penny as its literal meaning but the other meaning is fit to translate it as farthing. Some had valued Assarius to 1/16 of a denarius which is a vey small amount compared a days wage which also the bible don't mention it to have an exact equivalent, hence it is called a penny. The translator put farthing as the correct one. In the New Testament, the other usage for this Roman monetary unit is Quadran (kodrantes).

This is absurd. People were suffering and dying for Christ before the gospel came to England. Somehow people were getting born again without the JKV. The Reformation started without the KJV. English is not the only language spoken on earth.

A number of false teachings are based on the KJV. The "blab it and grab it" brigade and prosperity/healing preachers, based their distorted teachings on the KJV. How do I know? I was there. This stuff is not new. And using the KJV did not stop false teaching.

The KJV (and sadly, every version since that I know of) perpetuated the myth promoted by baby sprinklers. They had no choice. The KJV was "authorised" by King James, head of the Church of England. Translators were not about to rock the BS boat. So the word "baptise" was used instead of the accurate rendition, "immerse". That has lead to all kinds of disputes and confusion.

No Bible translation is perfect because it is rendered by imperfect people. Recently I've been using the Berean. I searched all my Christian life for the "best" version. There isn't one. So I use Bible Hub and let the Lord show me.

900 versions of the Bible? So what? There are around 30,000 denominations. All that proves is that Christians are too reliant on intellect and emotion and do not depend on the Life of Christ within.

The first religious nut job I met was KJV obsessed. He freaked me out. I'm starting to wonder if he's got to some of the posters in this forum.

is it important to know that in the text it is a Roman coin, not a Jewish coin, not a Greek coin?

kjv on plain reading leads one to believe it is a British coin.

Christ was completely obedient to his Father’s will even unto death, the death of the cross. The righteousness of God was on display through the faith of Christ.

is it important to know that in the text it is a Roman coin, not a Jewish coin, not a Greek coin?

kjv on plain reading leads one to believe it is a British coin.

The British may have used it as a reference factor in the point being made?
In any event it does not..in any way..change God's intent or meaning.

does the perfection of the works of God mean God the Son believes in Himself?
Has Christ put all His hope and trust in Himself, not relying on His obedient works, but on His own grace towards Himself through His faith in Himself?

see this all seems weird to me
because Christ is God, manifest in flesh.
why does God need to believe in Himself?
is there any way possible God would doubt Himself?

Christ was completely obedient to his Father’s will even unto death, the death of the cross. The righteousness of God was on display through the faith of Christ.

Romans 3
21 But now the righteousness of God without the law is manifested, being witnessed by the law and the prophets;
22 Even the righteousness of God which is by faith of Jesus Christ unto all and upon all them that believe: for there is no difference:

Faith is more than believing. Faith is obedience to God’s word. Faith without works is dead. It is entirely His work and none of our own. We are justified by HIS faith! His faith points to his testimony. Jesus was completely obedient as a man unto his Father.

7 But made himself of no reputation, and took upon him the form of a servant, and was made in the likeness of men:
8 And being found in fashion as a man, he humbled himself, and became obedient unto death, even the death of the cross.

You are the disrespectful one...of God's word.

Yes of course, we do not need a theological degree in understanding what is meant of your example, simply put that in a context and a good English Dictionary in order to understand it. Btw, what should have been the correct translation of your example? Thanks

Faith is the substance of things hoped for, the evidence of things not seen (Hebrews 11:1). Christ knew all along that He would die on the cross; He had seen heaven and knew the plan from start to finish. When you know from firsthand observation what the truth is, you aren't exercising faith. We believe what we are told without having seen it; that is faith, according to the scriptural definition.

So it makes far more sense that the phrase, "the faith of Christ" (or in the case above, "faith of Christ") the meaning is "the faith that is put in Christ" rather than "the faith that Christ exercised".

Bible hub displays versions of the bible and they are a good reference, kjb is also listed there. So you can pick which seems to you is right. Isn't this making yourself a final authority? Thanks

Sure. And those who refuse to accept any translation but the KJV do exactly the same. When I compare translations, the majority of the time the differences are minuscule. For example, NIV translates a word "desert" where NASB puts "wilderness". Both are acceptable translations. "Desert" implies devoid of life while wilderness does not. I prefer wilderness. It really is no big deal.

If you get a dictionary definition of "bowels", you will find that it is an organ in the body. If you want a comprehensible translation, virtually any Bible except for the KJV. You have access to the internet. Look up Bible Hub.

Okay, thanks for clarifying, I missed that.

You're making a mountain out of a molehill however. There's a good reason virtually every other version says "in." If you can't understand a concept as simple as faith in Christ I don't know what to say. Even the NKJV changed it; but we all know the NKJV is corrupted.

(sarcasm here folks)