Nephelim

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Jun 20, 2022
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Like I mentioned earlier, if you want factual Truths you go to the Hebrew Torah/Tanach.

If you want partial information that leads to wrongful translation you go to the KJV.
 

Lucy-Pevensie

Senior Member
Dec 20, 2017
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Exactly We used to have an old pastor who believed in this stuff and every time he would mention it he would say that angels "cohabited" with women. But the King James Bible clearly says that the individuals in question took "wives".
What does 'wife' mean though? In a time/place of depravity?

Mohammed's 'wife' Safiyah -

According to the Hadith, Safiyah did not have a choice in this marriage; she was war booty for Mohammad,
not an uncommon practice at the time. She and her husband were captured after Mohammad's conquest of Khaybar.
He tortured & murdered her husband Kinana and murdered her father after taking them as prisoners of war.

The Hadith narrations agree that Mohammad chose her due to her exceeding beauty, as had been his custom where
the Muslims took slave women as booty, such as the conquest of the Banu Qurayzah.

Similarly the Genesis 6 account could have been part of an act of war against mankind.
That isn't to say that the women (or some of them) didn't cooperate willingly. Just that we can't assume they did
based on our understanding of how marriage should be.
 

Mem

Senior Member
Sep 23, 2014
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When Scripture said, "we will be like the angels which neither marry nor are given in marriage," it uses the two phrases, 'to marry' and 'to be given in marriage' which covers both the male and female perspectives of marriage so as a man takes a wife.
 

Mem

Senior Member
Sep 23, 2014
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When Paul stood before the Sanhedrin, Acts 23 accounts the quarreling among the Sadducees and the Pharisees when he brought up the resurrection, knowing "the Sadducees say that there is neither a resurrection, nor angels, nor spirits, but the Pharisees acknowledge them all (Acts 23:8)," and found myself wishing I had a more thorough explanation of the Sadducee view of angels and spirits to help determine the extent of error or accuracy. I mean, should we always infer that the Pharisees are completely right when it comes to biblical interpretation?
 
Jun 20, 2022
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Here's Verse 4 that explains these Divine Beings or Angels had children with human women:
The fact of the matter is simple. If the KJV/Textus Receptus was translated properly it would be word for word to the Hebrew Torah.

If it is not word for word to the Hebrew Torah it is INCORRECT.

The Hebrew Torah existed for 3,500 years before the Textus Receptus KJV was ever written. If it reads differently and gives a different meaning to Genesis Chapter 6 it's proof Of mistranslation.

Those taking the view point of the KJV over the Hebrew Torah are being deceived.
 

Attachments

Jun 20, 2022
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Let me say it this way:

The Hebrew Torah Genesis Chapter 6 Version was given to Moses personally by God Himself.

The Textus Receptus KJV was given to us by Erasmus and the Roman Catholic Church.

Clearly only ONE VERSION is Inspired by God!
 
Aug 2, 2021
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When Scripture said, "we will be like the angels which neither marry nor are given in marriage," it uses the two phrases, 'to marry' and 'to be given in marriage' which covers both the male and female perspectives of marriage so as a man takes a wife.
You are correct = now continue to follow the Truth of the Holy Spirit = "sons of God".
 

Shepherd

Active member
May 11, 2022
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What does 'wife' mean though? In a time/place of depravity?

Mohammed's 'wife' Safiyah -

According to the Hadith, Safiyah did not have a choice in this marriage; she was war booty for Mohammad,
not an uncommon practice at the time. She and her husband were captured after Mohammad's conquest of Khaybar.
He tortured & murdered her husband Kinana and murdered her father after taking them as prisoners of war.

The Hadith narrations agree that Mohammad chose her due to her exceeding beauty, as had been his custom where
the Muslims took slave women as booty, such as the conquest of the Banu Qurayzah.

Similarly the Genesis 6 account could have been part of an act of war against mankind.
That isn't to say that the women (or some of them) didn't cooperate willingly. Just that we can't assume they did
based on our understanding of how marriage should be.
Simple: it means a permanent relationship, not a "one night stand".
It says they took "wives" . If they had merely fornicated, raped or "ravished" women, Genesis 6 would have made that distinction.
 

Dino246

Senior Member
Jun 30, 2015
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The fact of the matter is simple. If the KJV/Textus Receptus was translated properly it would be word for word to the Hebrew Torah.

If it is not word for word to the Hebrew Torah it is INCORRECT..
Hebrew cannot be translated “word for word” into English. The structures are completely different. Have a look at an interlinear version to get a sense of the challenges.
 

Shepherd

Active member
May 11, 2022
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The KJV translation of the word of God says "wives". Whether you do your homework on the word is up to you.
May 11th 1986, around 12pm,, I called on Jesus is faith after hearing a message from Psalm 23, King James Bible. You can wonder which translation/version is true/accurate if you want, but that one worked well enough for me.
 

Dino246

Senior Member
Jun 30, 2015
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May 11th 1986, around 12pm,, I called on Jesus is faith after hearing a message from Psalm 23, King James Bible. You can wonder which translation/version is true/accurate if you want, but that one worked well enough for me.
I don’t doubt your experience at all, but it isn’t evidence for the accuracy of the KJV. ;)
 

John146

Senior Member
Jan 13, 2016
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Hebrew cannot be translated “word for word” into English. The structures are completely different. Have a look at an interlinear version to get a sense of the challenges.
And yet, a translation can be the inspired words of God. Joseph spoke in Egyptian, yet his words were recorded as part of the Hebrew text in the "originals". I guess God is not bound by language.
 

Dino246

Senior Member
Jun 30, 2015
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And yet, a translation can be the inspired words of God. Joseph spoke in Egyptian, yet his words were recorded as part of the Hebrew text in the "originals". I guess God is not bound by language.
Irrelevant.
 

Shepherd

Active member
May 11, 2022
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I don’t doubt your experience at all, but it isn’t evidence for the accuracy of the KJV. ;)
Maybe not. Neither can you purport evidence or proof for any of the others.
 

Lucy-Pevensie

Senior Member
Dec 20, 2017
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Simple: it means a permanent relationship, not a "one night stand".
It says they took "wives" . If they had merely fornicated, raped or "ravished" women, Genesis 6 would have made that distinction.
Suit yourself.
Genesis 6 declares that humans had become so consistently evil that God destroyed them.
It doesn't sound like they had a righteous understanding of a marital relationship.
Forced marriages would be more likely than not in a world like that. It happens even in today's world.