Clarify?
The KJV is written in English and not Latin.
I am not getting your point here?
You said in post 43, “Anyone who has
studied Shakespeare in high school can understand the KJV.”
I responded in post 57, “Just like anyone who has
studied Latin in high school can understand the Vulgate.”
Given that someone today would likely need some help understanding Shakespeare, and
having studied it would better understand other English texts of that era, there is fundamentally no difference between the KJV and the Latin of the Vulgate,
if someone has studied Latin. The point is the
required preceding study of similar language. Yes, the modern reader with no other exposure to 16th-century English would likely understand
some of the KJV, but that's not my point. Rather, I stated that
in places the KJV is incomprehensible. LucyPevensie provided some perfect examples in post #74.