FreeGrace2 said:
2 Thess 2 PROVES that the Lord's "coming" and "our being gathered to Him" is AFTER the man of sin is REVEALED.
Now, this is JUST classic! All you've got is smoke and mirrors. NO actual verses telling us that raptured people then go to heaven.
So you can stop pretending that they do. They don't or the Bible would have told us.
OK, you aren't reading v.1 very well. So let's look at v.3 then.
You have it exactly BACKWARD. This is what John actually wrote:
3 Don’t let anyone deceive you in any way, for that day will not come until the rebellion occurs and the man of lawlessness is revealed, the man doomed to destruction.
You will probably disagree, but "that day" refers to v.1 and "the coming of our Lord", because He actually comes on a DAY. So John clearly teaches that the Second Advent and gathering doesn't occur UNTIL the "rebellion" (guess what that means) occurs and the "man of lawlessness is revealed".
Well, I agree with you. They were concerned that they had missed the rapture. And v.3 makes clear that the rapture cannot occur UNTIL the rebellion occurs and the Beast #1 (aka ac) is revealed.
We call that the post-trib rapture.
Probably has something to do with God blinding the minds of the amillennialists as a matter of judgment. That's just a theory of mine anyways.
2 Thess 2 PROVES that the Lord's "coming" and "our being gathered to Him" is AFTER the man of sin is REVEALED.
Now, this is JUST classic! All you've got is smoke and mirrors. NO actual verses telling us that raptured people then go to heaven.
So you can stop pretending that they do. They don't or the Bible would have told us.
OK, you aren't reading v.1 very well. So let's look at v.3 then.
You have it exactly BACKWARD. This is what John actually wrote:
3 Don’t let anyone deceive you in any way, for that day will not come until the rebellion occurs and the man of lawlessness is revealed, the man doomed to destruction.
You will probably disagree, but "that day" refers to v.1 and "the coming of our Lord", because He actually comes on a DAY. So John clearly teaches that the Second Advent and gathering doesn't occur UNTIL the "rebellion" (guess what that means) occurs and the "man of lawlessness is revealed".
Well, I agree with you. They were concerned that they had missed the rapture. And v.3 makes clear that the rapture cannot occur UNTIL the rebellion occurs and the Beast #1 (aka ac) is revealed.
We call that the post-trib rapture.
Probably has something to do with God blinding the minds of the amillennialists as a matter of judgment. That's just a theory of mine anyways.
Let's see that verse in other translations:
1534 Tyndale N.T.
Let no ma deceave you by eny meanes for the lorde commeth not excepte ther come a departynge fyrst and that that synfnll man be opened ye sonne of perdicion
1535 Coverdale Bible
Let no man disceaue you by eny meanes. For the LORDE commeth not, excepte the departynge come first, and that Man of Synne be opened, even the sonne of perdicion.
1539 Cranmer Great Bible
Let no man deceaue you by any meanes, for the Lorde shall not come excepte there come a departinge fyrst, & that that synfull man be opened, the sonne of perdicion.
1549 Matthew's Bible
Let no man deceyue you by any meanes, for the Lord commeth not, except there come a departyng first, and that, that sinful man be opened, the sonne of perdicyon
1565 Beza Bible
Let no man deceiue you by any meanes: for [that day shall not come,] except there come a departing first, and that man of sinne be disclosed, [euen] the son of perdition.
1575 Geneva Bible
Let no man deceiue you by any meanes for that day shal not come, except there come a departing first, and that man of sinne be disclosed, euen the sonne of perdition.
Now, according to Paul's theme, what could be departing as something being "taken out of the way. " Let's see: the theme is the gathering... Could that be a significant "departing"? CHECK!
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