Hi All...
I've been reading John 5 this evening...
24 Truly, truly I say to you, he who hears My word and believes Him who sent Me, has eternal life, and does not come into judgment, but has passed out of death into eternal life.
25 Truly, truly, I say to you an hour is coming and now is, when the dead will hear the voice of the Son of God, and those who hear will live.
26 For just as the Father has life in Himself, even so He gave to the Son also to have life in Himself;
27 and He gave Him authority to execute judgment, because He is the Son of Man.
28 Do not marvel at this; for an hour is coming, in which all who are in the tombs will hear his voice,
29 and will come forth; those who did good deeds to a resurrection of life, those who committed the evil deeds to a resurrection of judgment.
I picked up on the 'has eternal life, and does not come into judgment' in v24. It looks to be a completed event. Holding that thought...
V. 25 has Jesus saying, 'an hour is coming, and now is...' This looks to be the time at which Jesus is speaking and not something still yet to come. This is similar to Jn 4:23 where Jesus explains to the woman of Sychar about true worship, and there is a parallel in 4:21 which does not have the 'and now is' part. Holding that thought as well...
There is a part about the Father giving authority to judge to the Son, then in v.28, 'an hour is coming, in which all in the tombs...' So, aren't these the same dead people He referred to in v.25? Maybe, but I don't think so; v.28 doesn't have the 'and now is'. I suspect that the 'hour is coming' in v.28 refers to the time between the crucifixion and resurrection.
It appears to me that in v.25, Jesus is calling the (physically alive) people within earshot, 'dead' as in 'dead in their sins', while in v.28 he was clearly talking about those who were already physically dead. As an aside, this would seem, and I emphasize 'seem', to suggest that those who died prior to Jesus' coming are judged by their deeds, while those during and after are judged by their response to Christ. I'm not holding tight to that idea, just noticing it for now.
Going back to v.24, Jesus is stating that those who believe that He is sent by the Father have eternal life, while in v.25, He is saying the same thing a different way: "the dead will hear the voice of the Son of God," as in, those who hear just a man will remain in their sins, but those who hear the Son of God (IOW, they believe that He is sent from God) will live.
I welcome your thoughts and other references.
I've been reading John 5 this evening...
24 Truly, truly I say to you, he who hears My word and believes Him who sent Me, has eternal life, and does not come into judgment, but has passed out of death into eternal life.
25 Truly, truly, I say to you an hour is coming and now is, when the dead will hear the voice of the Son of God, and those who hear will live.
26 For just as the Father has life in Himself, even so He gave to the Son also to have life in Himself;
27 and He gave Him authority to execute judgment, because He is the Son of Man.
28 Do not marvel at this; for an hour is coming, in which all who are in the tombs will hear his voice,
29 and will come forth; those who did good deeds to a resurrection of life, those who committed the evil deeds to a resurrection of judgment.
I picked up on the 'has eternal life, and does not come into judgment' in v24. It looks to be a completed event. Holding that thought...
V. 25 has Jesus saying, 'an hour is coming, and now is...' This looks to be the time at which Jesus is speaking and not something still yet to come. This is similar to Jn 4:23 where Jesus explains to the woman of Sychar about true worship, and there is a parallel in 4:21 which does not have the 'and now is' part. Holding that thought as well...
There is a part about the Father giving authority to judge to the Son, then in v.28, 'an hour is coming, in which all in the tombs...' So, aren't these the same dead people He referred to in v.25? Maybe, but I don't think so; v.28 doesn't have the 'and now is'. I suspect that the 'hour is coming' in v.28 refers to the time between the crucifixion and resurrection.
It appears to me that in v.25, Jesus is calling the (physically alive) people within earshot, 'dead' as in 'dead in their sins', while in v.28 he was clearly talking about those who were already physically dead. As an aside, this would seem, and I emphasize 'seem', to suggest that those who died prior to Jesus' coming are judged by their deeds, while those during and after are judged by their response to Christ. I'm not holding tight to that idea, just noticing it for now.
Going back to v.24, Jesus is stating that those who believe that He is sent by the Father have eternal life, while in v.25, He is saying the same thing a different way: "the dead will hear the voice of the Son of God," as in, those who hear just a man will remain in their sins, but those who hear the Son of God (IOW, they believe that He is sent from God) will live.
I welcome your thoughts and other references.