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Is polygamy ok to God?
- Thread starter Rochii
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aboutenough
Guest
How , he hasn't divorced his first wife, but marries a second one. How is that adultery ?
In the same way how it is adultery when he divorces his first wife.
The point Christ is making is that no divorce is recognized by God. Therefore even when somebody divorces his wife, its still adultery to marry another woman (because he still belongs to the first one).
If he does not divorce his first wife and marries another, the same logic applies.
But God clearly recognises it when man separates what He has joined together. If a man's wife is a harlot, hasn't God given the right to divorce her? If a man simply divorces his wife in order to marry another woman, then yes, that is adultery. That says nothing against polygyny.
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Mmmm
Can you explain better?
I meanif a man simply divorces his wife and marry another woman is adultery, how can a married man marry another woman and not be adultery?
So God, being against all of the sins of the Canaanites, being so concerned about His people not repeating the same sins, allowed a sin so grievous as polygyny in the land they would possess?
God is holy, His law is holy, He called the children of Israel to holiness. He would not allow a sin in the law to pollute the land, would He?
What's defined as fairness in our Western culture is not an argument against what God has created and decreed.
Well I'm pretty sure that many sins were done by people in the land they would possess, that doesn't mean that God is allowing people to sin.
Because it is as God said: He joins a man with a woman in marriage. If a man disjoins (divorces) himself from his wife with whom God had originally joined, for the sole purpose of marrying (joining himself to) another woman, then God rightly sees it as adultery, as an offense to Him, because God is central to marriage as the unifier. If the wife was having sex with other men then she was undoing what God did in her marriage (joining) to her husband also, which would make the man free to divorce her (as she effectively divorced/disjoined herself through her actions) and marry another woman who would be faithful.
This is my understanding of the Law of Moses and nothing to do with how I think we Christians should live in the current dispensation. Deuteronomy 24 and Matthew 19 are all about divorce and adultery in Jewish law, polygyny is not involved in this.
My point is that God's Law was perfect in stopping all sin, if the Law was obeyed. Sins only happened when the children of Israel forsook God and His Law. There is no way God would allow any sin in His Law because it brings God's holiness into disrepute, especially for a Muslim and atheist who we must try to evangelise.
I think I can agree with your interpretation of law of Moses.
But I think saying polygamy has nothing to do with Matthew 19 is wrong
Again if Im committing adultery because of marrying another woman while being divorce, how can marrying another woman while married not be adultery?
Sorry for being repetitive, but I just don't see how can you justify polygyny not being involved.
I agree God's law is perfect, that's why He doesn't command man to have many wives. A muslim or atheist must be evangelise, imagine the confusion you would make if they would see you had many wives. That wouldn't be a good testimony at all (even more knowing the NT).
Jesus was simply asked by the Pharisees whether it is okay for a man to divorce his wife for any reason in Matthew 19, nothing more than this.
It's okay, it is a tricky topic, and I did not understand for years. All I can say is that adultery is only ever counted by God when divorce (disjoining of His holy union of marraige) is involved in some way or if there is extramarital sex. And God has differing roles for men and women that would be considered unfair with Western values.
We cannot be selective on what part of God's Law we should recognise and others we should disregard. In Exodus 20 the Israelites were commanded not to commit adultery, yet in Exodus 21 there is levirate marriage. We know God was prophesying against Solomon in Deuteronomy.
Muslims are already confused because they see many Christians say "polygamy is wrong in Islam" but they read the Old Testament and see it clearly. Atheists just laugh.
What would you say to David if you could go back in time? He had wives that God gave him.
We cannot be selective on what part of God's Law we should recognise and others we should disregard. In Exodus 20 the Israelites were commanded not to commit adultery, yet in Exodus 21 there is levirate marriage. We know God was prophesying against Solomon in Deuteronomy.
Muslims are already confused because they see many Christians say "polygamy is wrong in Islam" but they read the Old Testament and see it clearly. Atheists just laugh.
What would you say to David if you could go back in time? He had wives that God gave him.
Well knowing everything that David had to go through and all of the suffering that it meant for him and his wives, I would tell him not to do it.
If a muslim reads the OT and gets the idea that polygamy is God's will, that muslim is sadly confused like you are hahaha
And that Muslim should probably study the whole bible deeply and he would probably get to the same conclusion I did
I'm not being selective, I'm pointing out evidence I think is enough to believe polygamy is not God's will.
What are you calling Levirate marriage? Servanthood? Do you likewise take surrounding verses, such as, Anyone who strikes a person with a fatal blow is to be put to death, as a command to strike fatal blows? That is how much sense what you say makes.
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OldSoldier
Guest
Someone has to explain to me how man populated the earth without it? From a practical standpoint, God let men live for hundreds of years in the begginning, and it was to poulate, I assume. They had to have multiple "wives" in order to do this. As time went by, and the popualtion increased, God shortened the lifespan. Even after that, there are rightous men in the Old Testament that had slaves and concubines, as well as more that one wife. In Jesus's time, Jewish men were allowed to have more than one wife and some did so. Jesus never once mentioned it (Polygamy). If it were the sine we seem to think it is, it seems He would have addressed it. On the same topic, sort of, I have always wondered how mankind sprung from Adam and Eve if there was not incest involved in the beginning. I am not making a case for it, just cannot believe that it was not acceptable at the beginning, and as time went by it was not, God had to have granted man a grace period for it to work without the birth defects and other issues that arise from it today. Going from memory, was it the book of Leviticus that finally addressed the matter, when the earth was off to a good start population wise? Just my thoughts and I admit I do not know the real answers to this.
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OldSoldier
Guest
Your reply leaves out the fact that a woman committed adultry if she had sex with anyone but her husband. A man did so by having sex with a married or engaged woman. So, the "many things" they did in the Old Testament does not include polygamy.
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