I was referring to your assumption that no one on this thread is capable of imagining heavenly bodies.
Is the double slit experiment proof of original sin?
- Thread starter pittsburghjoe
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He says sin cannot happen without physicality yet angels are not physical
still he claims Satan was the first sinner. A&E -according to him- were not
physical either when they first sinned, but he is too scared to look his
contradictions squarely in the face and acknowledge them for
the nonsense they are. He cannot imagine being wrong
He says sin cannot happen without physicality yet angels are not physical
still he claims Satan was the first sinner. A&E -according to him- were not
physical either when they first sinned, but he is too scared to look his
contradictions squarely in the face and acknowledge them for
the nonsense they are. He cannot imagine being wrong
Weird how you think we will be able to masturbate in Heaven.
Ultimately, aren't you only attempting to explain your views from a Scientific standpoint?
OK!
Let's say mission accomplished.
Now, explain your views from a non Scientific standpoint, to see [if] there's more clarity to those not participating but reading within this thread!
limitless like a dust vapor that can walk through walls, molecular structured to be in one place 1 second and then to be somewhere like the other side of the Universe from just thought, but yet tangible to eat and drink and be full of emotion except for [fear and doubt]. Yeah, it's going to be pretty sweet!
Another of your logical fallacies. More of your obscene nonsense.
You have been reported for your disgusting false accusation.
I think Dark Matter is matter-waves that can not collapse.
God needed Dark Matter Waves to hold Galaxies together. He needed it so that physical fallen history would lead up to Adam causing Original Sin with wave collapse. Is Dark Matter showing us the hand of God because it doesn't collapse? Would this reality exist without Dark Matter Waves?
Time ..History ..can be baked into the first wave collapse ..Original Sin.
Could Dark Matter Waves remain waves even when collapsed like a wave packet?
God needed Dark Matter Waves to hold Galaxies together. He needed it so that physical fallen history would lead up to Adam causing Original Sin with wave collapse. Is Dark Matter showing us the hand of God because it doesn't collapse? Would this reality exist without Dark Matter Waves?
Time ..History ..can be baked into the first wave collapse ..Original Sin.
Could Dark Matter Waves remain waves even when collapsed like a wave packet?
for the 50th time you didn't answer.
Satan was in heaven when he sinned. therefore sin is possible in heaven, but has no place in it - therefore war, and Satan was cast out, along with his angels - which had also sinned after him, in heaven.
ergo you're wrong about whether non-physicality is inherently sinless, wrong about physicality being equivalent to sinfulness, and wrong about indeterminacy being equivalent to spiritual goodness.
we all see it.
Is Dark Matter, De Broglie matter-waves? Does it have an inability to collapse into physical particles? Does it remain a decohered wave packet like a photon? Would Galaxies hold together without Dark Matter Waves? Is it hinting there is a Creator?
DM is kind of like the big ocean of the Universe. From Creation to the start of the ever expanding Universe, DM covers roughly 85% So, you're calling DM a stabilizer. I see it as the ocean of the Universe.
DM is the Stabilizer in your theory. I'm not so sure I want to disagree here.
It would be more like a current blockage to energy flow. There's no history because it's designed to be a continual flow. Like a hose to water to destination
Ultimately, it reveals a [pattern] like we discover more obvious in Galaxies and Constellations. The Pattern therefore reveals a Designer. The simulation reveals Reason. The entire schematics reveals a Model. The overall View reveals a Creator.
That's a nonsense question.
All matter, per De Broglie, is describable as 'matter waves'
That's one of the most basic concepts of QM
Have you ever had any education in modern physics, at all?
Original Sin started Fallen Time ..Physical History ..Linear Time (Entropy) ..Age.
Was Time only Cyclical and Coherent beforehand?
Was Time only Cyclical and Coherent beforehand?
Not at all. The double slit experiment shows the mystery at the heart of quantum mechanics. There's no sense of judgement here: light behaves as a wave under certain parameters, as a particle under others. But then people like Feynman would have held that we can't grasp the quantum mechanical world - though the Theory of quantum electro dynamics works. It's got nothing to do with fallen reality, and the fact that we can theorise about and go so deep into nature is part of the goodness God has given us, and the wonder of Creation.
Thanks for stopping by and only reading the first post.
Is Time without a Present State considered Cyclical and Coherent?
Does a Present State act like Decoherence?
Is Time without a Present State considered Cyclical and Coherent?
Does a Present State act like Decoherence?
not at all, in fact, the opposite.
time is a derived measure of the relative position of all the matter & energy in the universe.
any 'instant' of time, the "present" or "now" is perfectly coherent because by nature of being independent of the relative motion of all the matter and energy in the universe, each possible pairing or n-tuple of individual components of the universe in a "present state" has invariant phase difference.
so by the very definition of coherence ((invariant phase difference)) all "moments" are individually universally 100% coherent. the "present state" is completely coherent.
cyclicity is a word that only makes sense across a time interval. not all sequences are cyclical.
a probability distribution can be formed by a cyclical sequence mapped to a continuous function with cyclical properties & viewed as a time sequence. by definition in such a case every 'instant' ((representing a particular value in the integral probability distribution function)) has probability P(t) = 0
because the function is cyclical there exist x & z in the time sequence for which P(x) ≠ P(z) -- therefore the system is decoherent.
so there's an instance where your 1st hypothesis fails, and your 2nd hypothesis is disproven by definition.
