If you want to call taking God at His words, arguing it, then ok.
Scripture just calls it simple teaching of what is written:
Neh 8:8
So they read in the book in the law of God distinctly, and gave the sense.
Is 53:3-4 simply prophesies, that only men imputed Jesus with sin and esteemed Him smitten of God. Not God Himself.
Nowhere in Scripture, does God ever say that He agreed with them, and also imputed His own Son with sin, and smote Him as by law
Isaiah 53 does exactly that distinction for us.
The chapter first records the mistaken conclusion of the observers and then explains God's actual purpose.
Isaiah 53:4 says: "We esteemed him stricken, smitten of God, and afflicted."
The verb is ḥāshab
(חשב), "to reckon, regard, account, esteem."
The statement is explicitly about what we thought.
The error was in our estimation.
But Isaiah does not stop there.
He immediately corrects that estimation: "But he was wounded for our transgressions, he was bruised for our iniquities" (v. 5).
The Hebrew begins with wəhuʾ ("but he"), creating a contrast.
Isaiah is moving from human perception to divine explanation.
The bigger problem for your argument is that Isaiah then uses entirely different verbs:
"The LORD hath laid on him the iniquity of us all" (v. 6).
The verb is pāgaʿ
(פגע).
It means to cause something to meet, encounter, or fall upon someone.
Isaiah is not describing what men imagined.
He is describing what YHWH did.
Then: "He shall bear their iniquities" (v. 11). "He bare the sin of many" (v. 12).
The verb is nāśāʾ
(נשא), "to bear, carry, lift, bear away."
Notice that Isaiah never uses nāśāʾ to mean "falsely accused."
He uses ḥāshab for mistaken human estimation and nāśāʾ for actual burden-bearing.
So the text contains three distinct ideas:
Human estimation: "We esteemed him..." (ḥāshab).
Divine action: "The LORD laid on him..." (pāgaʿ).
Servant action: "He bore..." (nāśāʾ).
Your interpretation collapses all three into the first category.
Furthermore, nobody here is claiming God imputed personal sin to Christ.
Isaiah never says the Servant became a sinner.
In fact, Isaiah says the opposite:
"He had done no violence, neither was any deceit in his mouth" (v. 9).
The Servant remains righteous.
Yet the same chapter says:
"The LORD hath laid on him the iniquity of us all."
If verse 4 means God had no role whatsoever in the Servant's suffering, then verses 6, 10, 11, and 12 become unintelligible.
Isaiah's point is not that the crowd was wrong to see God's hand involved at all.
The crowd was wrong about why He suffered.
They assumed He was being judged for His own guilt.
Isaiah says He was suffering as the righteous Servant on behalf of others.
That is why the chapter progresses from "we esteemed" to "the LORD hath laid on him" to "he shall bear their iniquities."
The Hebrew itself distinguishes human misjudgment from God's stated purpose.