Originally Posted by Katy-follower
All man (except Jesus) inherited sin from Adam, including Mary. 40 days after Jesus’ birth Mary offered, at the temple in Jerusalem, a sin offering for purification. She, too, had inherited sin and imperfection from Adam (Luke 2:22-24 & Lev 12:1-8)
You are aware that as a devout Jew, she would naturally follow the commandments of the Lord regarding what to do after having a child.... Even if she had no sin.
Besides, Scripture itself refers to her as "full of grace" and does so in a particular sense. If you look at the Greek where the Angel Gabriel greets Mary and tells her that she will bear the Messiah, he says to her "Hail, full of grace, the Lord is with you" (Luke 1:28). The phrase "full of grace" is a translation of the Greek word kecharitomene.
Basically, it's a particular tense of the word "grace" used here. The grace given to Mary is at once permanent and of a unique kind.Kecharitomene is a perfect passive participle of charitoo, meaning "to fill or endow with grace." Since this term is in the perfect tense, it indicates that Mary was graced in the past but with continuing effects in the present. So, the grace Mary enjoyed was NOT a result of the angel’s visit, it was pre-existent to the that moment in time.
In layman's terms, she was full of a grace that was currently part of her nature, and had also always been a part of her nature. IE, she was protected from the stain of Adam's sin as befitting her unique role in Christ's plan of Salvation.
Hey Devin
Thing is, scripture says that all have sinned and fall short of the glory of God
(Romans 3:21-26). It mentions Jesus as the exception, it doesn’t say all except Mary. She too inherited sin from Adam. When we read that Jesus was the only one without sin
(Hebrews 4:14-15) this is what we accept because scripture does not contradict itself and I’ve found nowhere in the bible that states Mary was sinless; quite the contrary. Death came through Adam but life came through Jesus Christ
(Romans 5: 12-15) (2 Cor 5:21, 1 John 3:5) .
God is God. He does not require a sinless vessel to give birth to a sinless Jesus, because He is God and can do anything. The idea of Immaculate Conception is man’s way of trying to make sense of how Jesus could’ve possibly been born sinless unless Mary was also sinless. Thing is, the conception was an act of God. He would not need a perfect woman to produce a perfect child. Jesus was protected from sin while in the womb. God chose Mary because she was Godly and committed and the right woman to raise Jesus as her own. Therefore she was blessed to have been chosen. He would not have found a sinless vessel anywhere anyway (nor would He need to).
Ecclesiastes 7:20: “For there is not a just man on earth who does good And does not sin”
No one denies that Mary was a Godly woman but she admitted to needing a savior. Sinless people would not need a savior.
Luke 1:46-49: “My soul magnifies the Lord, And my spirit has rejoiced in God my Savior. For He has regarded the lowly state of His maidservant; For behold, henceforth all generations will call me blessed. For He who is mighty has done great things for me, And holy is His name”
Luke 2:24 “A pair of turtledoves or two young pigeons”
Leviticus 12:8: “And if she is not able to bring a lamb, then she may bring two turtledoves or two young pigeons—one as a burnt offering and the other as a sin offering. So the priest shall make atonement for her, and she will be clean” – Mary was admitting her sinful state by offering these sacrifices.
Mary was corrected by Jesus
(Luke 2:48-50)
Another thing I noticed... the Greek word, Adelphos, is used in the bible when talking of Jesus’ brothers. Adelphos means physical brothers (sharing the same womb). This proves Jesus had brothers from the same mother and that they were not cousins. There are other scriptures that speak of the marriage being consummated so Mary did not remain a virgin after Jesus. Also, it would have been a sin for Mary & Joseph to not consummate the marriage because of God’s design for marriage, as described in the bible. From what I understand, it would be abnormal for any Jewish couple to not have a large family anyway.