Praying in Tongues

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obedienttogod

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The Gospels were written in Aramaic/Hebrew according to fragments dated by the Papyrus Code:
Then they were translated into the Greek.

But nonetheless, the word for his in the Greek is του, and the word for it in the Greek is το.
 

obedienttogod

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This is the proper Greek translation
John 16:
13 Yet whenever that may be coming - the spirit of truth -it will be guiding you into all the truth, for it will not be speaking from itself, but whatsoever it should be hearing will it be speaking, and of what is coming will it be informing you."


14 That will be glorifying Me, seeing that of Mine will it be getting, and informing you."


Which reveals the translators mixed them up.
 

obedienttogod

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Ιωάννης 16:
13 Όμως, όποτε αυτό έρχεται - το πνεύμα της αλήθειας - θα σας καθοδηγήσει σε όλη την αλήθεια, διότι δεν θα μιλήσει από τον εαυτό της, αλλά όποια και αν είναι η ακοή θα μιλήσει και τι θα έρθει θα το να σας ενημερώσω. "

14 Αυτός θα με δοξάσει, βλέποντας ότι αυτό του Οίνου θα πάρει και θα σας ενημερώσει ».
 

obedienttogod

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Ιωάννης 16:
13 Όμως, όποτε αυτό έρχεται - το πνεύμα της αλήθειας - θα σας καθοδηγήσει σε όλη την αλήθεια, διότι δεν θα μιλήσει από τον εαυτό της, αλλά όποια και αν είναι η ακοή θα μιλήσει και τι θα έρθει θα το να σας ενημερώσω. "

14 Αυτός θα με δοξάσει, βλέποντας ότι αυτό του Οίνου θα πάρει και θα σας ενημερώσει ».

You clearly can see they are using the word το which means it and translating in the English as his.
 

obedienttogod

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Ιωάννης 16:
13 Όμως, όποτε αυτό έρχεται - το πνεύμα της αλήθειας - θα σας καθοδηγήσει σε όλη την αλήθεια, διότι δεν θα μιλήσει από τον εαυτό της, αλλά όποια και αν είναι η ακοή θα μιλήσει και τι θα έρθει θα το να σας ενημερώσω. "

14 Αυτός θα με δοξάσει, βλέποντας ότι αυτό του Οίνου θα πάρει και θα σας ενημερώσει ».



το is masculine
τι is feminine

Both mean (it)
 

obedienttogod

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verse 14 has 1 mention of he

but the English translation has ((7)) he's which is impossible, because there IS NOT 7 του in both verses together!!

there is a grand total of 1, in verse 14
 

obedienttogod

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clearly the KJV Translators put 6 more (HE)'s in there for a reason. But that is not even what the Greek claims. so the translators are LYING!!
 
Mar 28, 2016
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Unfortunately you have not answered my questions. Here they are again:

What is it that you are calling "the Original Translation" given that it's still in English? In other words, where is this "Original Translation"? Who published it and when? Who was on the translation committee? Or, is it "your own personal original translation"?
God lovingly commands us to study, rightly dividing (not adding or subtracting) His living abiding word in order for us to seek his approval .

God published it as he wrote it in the language it was heard of by the prophet he moved mutual giving ears to hear the gospel that did mix what they heard with faith (believing God not seen) .3,000 souls heard the interpretation of God in Acts 2 in the twinkling of the eye

There can be words that has been changed to reflect another spirit as a spirit of error. As long as it does not do despite the Spirit of grace the gospel can still be found.

Further, on what basis do you claim that English Bibles "are clearly not translated properly"?
That is, what training do you have, or on whose training do you lean, that you make such a grand claim?
To violate the warning in Deuteronomy 4:3 not to add to a word singular could put the author in jeopardy of what he was informing . Making the word of God without effect.

The word apostle in that way has all been destroyed as to its intent by a manner called apostolic succession .
 

Noose

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Apr 18, 2016
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I have a question. It would seem that when he said in respect to his own image that that image is mankind (male and female one creation ) unlike the other beast of the field he created them male and female as separate entities. He reminds us that in the end of the matter he is the husband we seek after as his bride

Seeing in the end of the matter the two will becomes one new creation as a chaste virgin bride. Could we say God created his bride in the image of God He created, both again to represent as one?
It could be, but what it doesn't mean is that three separate persons, having one purpose or one mind deciding to create mankind in their image.

1. IMO, the Father/Son/Holy spirit are authorities within the person of God and the authority of the son is subordinate to that of the Father. In the same manner, He created man who within him had the authority of male and female (Eve just came from within Adam - so we can look it this way, within Adam, there was both Adam and Eve). The authority of the female is subordinate to that of the male and this is what the image of God is all about.

2. It is true also that the image He gave mankind and not other beasts. As He (God) has authority over everything, He gave mankind authority over all creation.

3. It is through this image that salvation is achieved. Male and female become one in marriage just like it was initially- female coming from male. We (mankind) proceeded from God during creation and we shall be one with Him in marriage if we truly submit to Him and obey.

Isaiah clearly brings out this image in the person of God.

Isa 9:
6For unto us a child is born,
unto us a son is given,
and the government will be upon His shoulders.
And He will be called
Wonderful Counselor, Mighty God,
Everlasting Father, Prince of Peace.

Bearing in mind that the name = authority, the child will have the following authorities:

Wonderful Counselor = Holy spirit
Everlasting Father = Father
Prince of Peace = Son
Mighty God = Mighty God

All these in one person and not three separate persons.
 
Mar 28, 2016
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It could be, but what it doesn't mean is that three separate persons, having one purpose or one mind deciding to create mankind in their image.

1. IMO, the Father/Son/Holy spirit are authorities within the person of God and the authority of the son is subordinate to that of the Father. In the same manner, He created man who within him had the authority of male and female (Eve just came from within Adam - so we can look it this way, within Adam, there was both Adam and Eve). The authority of the female is subordinate to that of the male and this is what the image of God is all about.

2. It is true also that the image He gave mankind and not other beasts. As He (God) has authority over everything, He gave mankind authority over all creation.

3. It is through this image that salvation is achieved. Male and female become one in marriage just like it was initially- female coming from male. We (mankind) proceeded from God during creation and we shall be one with Him in marriage if we truly submit to Him and obey.

Isaiah clearly brings out this image in the person of God.

Isa 9:
6For unto us a child is born,
unto us a son is given,
and the government will be upon His shoulders.
And He will be called
Wonderful Counselor, Mighty God,
Everlasting Father, Prince of Peace.

Bearing in mind that the name = authority, the child will have the following authorities:

Wonderful Counselor = Holy spirit
Everlasting Father = Father
Prince of Peace = Son
Mighty God = Mighty God

All these in one person and not three separate persons.

I would agree that God is one person who is not a man that has a nature as us but remains a supernatural Spirit without beginning or end of Spirit life. By looking at the immutable attributes I see it more as a dynamic duel. One Spirit working one faith together in mutual submissiveness to each as if there was two. Together working to bring the peace of God that surpasses all human understanding.
 

CS1

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May 23, 2012
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Ok let's take one of 'your' definition;

"In a computer science context, in certain contexts of math, and in other logical disciplines, one means 'true' or 'present / existing' and zero conversely means 'false' or 'not present / not existing'
  • e.g. binary logic gate, [1, 0] is the machine language equivalent of the programming language [TRUE, FALSE]"
When were computers and computer languages discovered? before that time, this exact definition of the term 'one' didn't exist i guess. So can we say we started babbling from that moment on?

When i say broad definition of 'one', i'm going way back, like in Adam and Eve's time. They wouldn't have a list of 10 meanings of the word one but just two.
wow more secular humanism to explain the word of God? " I'm going way back" LOL what a prideful Joke. You, sir, can only go back as far as the context of man starts found in Genesis written by Moses as God gave it to HIM.
NO, we cannot say "we started babbling from that moment on. LOl.

Unbiblical and unfounded in the word of God.
 

Noose

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Apr 18, 2016
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wow more secular humanism to explain the word of God? " I'm going way back" LOL what a prideful Joke. You, sir, can only go back as far as the context of man starts found in Genesis written by Moses as God gave it to HIM.
NO, we cannot say "we started babbling from that moment on. LOl.

Unbiblical and unfounded in the word of God.
You totally misunderstood me.
 

Noose

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Apr 18, 2016
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then explain with Biblical support
I have, go back and read my posts. You don't have to agree with what i said and it is within your jurisdiction to judge what i have said. If you think i'm proud then that's the way it is, i can't stop you from thinking.
 

CS1

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May 23, 2012
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I have, go back and read my posts. You don't have to agree with what i said and it is within your jurisdiction to judge what i have said. If you think i'm proud then that's the way it is, i can't stop you from thinking.
No thank you. I have had enough secular humanism in college; I do not need to overlook it again in a Christian chat site.
 

Dino246

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Jun 30, 2015
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clearly the KJV Translators put 6 more (HE)'s in there for a reason. But that is not even what the Greek claims. so the translators are LYING!!
The Gospels were written in Aramaic/Hebrew according to fragments dated by the Papyrus Code:
Then they were translated into the Greek.

But nonetheless, the word for his in the Greek is του, and the word for it in the Greek is το.
You throw away almost 5800 Greek manuscripts in favour of one with sketchy provenance. That's just silly.

You still haven't answered my questions. I don't find your contributions credible.
 
Mar 28, 2016
15,954
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wow more secular humanism to explain the word of God? " I'm going way back" LOL what a prideful Joke. You, sir, can only go back as far as the context of man starts found in Genesis written by Moses as God gave it to HIM.
NO, we cannot say "we started babbling from that moment on. LOl.

Unbiblical and unfounded in the word of God.
I would think babbling would have to be defined as used in context of the scriptures. Remember because of the fall mankind is born with "no faith" in respect to a unseen God..... not little, but none. In that way we are to marvel not that we must be born again.

Deuteronomy 32:19-21 King James Version (KJV)
And when the Lord saw it, he abhorred them, because of the provoking of his sons, and of his daughters. And he said, I will hide my face from them, I will see what their end shall be: for they are a very froward generation, children in whom is no faith. They have moved me to jealousy with that which is not God; they have provoked me to anger with their vanities: and I will move them to jealousy with those which are not a people; I will provoke them to anger with a foolish nation.

How could they communicate if they had no understanding coming from God who has no form other than it ending up as babble?

Romans 3 informs us no one understands God and therefore cannot seek after Him unless he does the first works by which we can believe or exercise (work ) the faith that coming from hearing God. Romans 3 inform us what if they do not believe the voice of God? Will their unbelief (no faith ) make the faith of God without effect in those who do believe God?

Babble meaning "confused medley of sounds" The Babylonians desired to build a tower as tall as the imagination of the heart of man... (out of sight out of mind) or walking by sight. God took away his understanding that they had amongst themselves. What they had to offer was babble. No understanding of faith God's labor of love, as it is written.

2 Corinthians 10:12 For we dare not make ourselves of the number, or compare ourselves with some that commend themselves: but they measuring themselves by themselves, and comparing themselves among themselves, are not wise.

It makes me wonder as inquired of in Luke 18 ..when he comes on the last day will he find the faith of Christ working in the hearts of men, or men building bigger barn towers after the imaginations of their owns hearts?

And shall not God avenge his own elect, which cry day and night unto him, though he bear long with them? I tell you that he will avenge them speedily. Nevertheless when the Son of man cometh, shall he find faith on the earth? And he spake this parable unto certain which trusted in themselves that they were righteous, and despised others: Luke 18:7-9
 

obedienttogod

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You throw away almost 5800 Greek manuscripts in favour of one with sketchy provenance. That's just silly.

You still haven't answered my questions. I don't find your contributions credible.


I am throwing nothing away. All biblical scholars agree the Gospels were originally written in the Jewish native language of that day. Plus, they had the writings of Moses, the prophets, and others to ensure what they were writing was similar. And the Papyrus reveals the Hebrew/Aramaic writings were older than the translated Greek. Facts are facts whether you like it or not!!

As far as answering your question, if I presented a billion examples it would do no good. You prefer the English because it denotes a person view of the Holy Spirit due to how you believe. So no matter what I present, I am never going to prove to you anything since you will keep your traditions over fact in any scenario. Nowhere in the scriptures does it say persons anywhere. But someone preached a sermon and labelled persons and people chose the man's word over what the Bible actually claims. That is your tradition, and no amount of true fact will ever remove your superstition!!
 
I

IAm1

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There's nothing about Jesus' baptism that supports trinity doctrine. Three separate persons yes, but three persons in one, not so much, you have to stretch your imagination and scripture to get that.
Matthew 11:27 All things have been delivered to Me by My Father, and no one knows the Son except the Father. Nor does anyone know the Father except the Son, and the one to whom the Son wills to reveal Him. (NKJV Strong's,)
 

Dino246

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Jun 30, 2015
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I am throwing nothing away. All biblical scholars agree the Gospels were originally written in the Jewish native language of that day. Plus, they had the writings of Moses, the prophets, and others to ensure what they were writing was similar. And the Papyrus reveals the Hebrew/Aramaic writings were older than the translated Greek. Facts are facts whether you like it or not!!

As far as answering your question, if I presented a billion examples it would do no good. You prefer the English because it denotes a person view of the Holy Spirit due to how you believe. So no matter what I present, I am never going to prove to you anything since you will keep your traditions over fact in any scenario. Nowhere in the scriptures does it say persons anywhere. But someone preached a sermon and labelled persons and people chose the man's word over what the Bible actually claims. That is your tradition, and no amount of true fact will ever remove your superstition!!
Perhaps if you simply answered my questions instead of giving answers to questions I have not asked, it would make your posts credible. Instead you have chosen to respond with a personal attack on me.

"All biblical scholars agree..." Hogwash. Name three. Facts are facts when founded on credible evidence, not your assertions that come with no references, citations, sources, or anything else to back them up.

This has nothing to do with my preferences or tradition, about which you know exactly nothing. It has to do with your unfounded assertions.

So... answer the questions, or be ignored.