Some professing Christains say that God's law is a curse. What? Why?

[just-me]

I would like to see scripture that says that the law "is" a curse.

I have mentioned that the Torah has blessings and cursings listed in Deuteronomy 11:26-28. The curses are listed in Deuteronomy 27:13-26, and the blessings are listed in Deuteronomy 28:3-13. In conversation, I have heard that the law has been made void and there are no law blessings because the New Covenant has replaced the Old Covenant.

Numbers 6:23-27
[SUP]23 [/SUP]“Speak to Aaron and his sons, saying, Thus you shall bless the people of Israel: you shall say to them,
[SUP]24 [/SUP]The Lord bless you and keep you;
[SUP]25 [/SUP]the Lord make his face to shine upon you and be gracious to you;
[SUP]26 [/SUP]the Lord lift up his countenance upon you and give you peace.
[SUP]27 [/SUP]“So shall they put my name upon the people of Israel, and I will bless them.”

If the Torah has been made void by the New Covenant, this above scripture is vanity when recited in the New Covenant church.

Now here is where it begins to make no sense to me. If the law (Torah) has been made void, the blessings listed in Torah are also void. Nevertheless the voided law still has curses, because "the law is a curse" as I have heard.

So is it right to call the Torah a curse for the sake of endorsing a lawless (minus Torah) New Covenant that replaced the Old Covenant Torah?

This is my conundrum; If the Torah is void so are the blessings, so why mention the curses in something that doesn't exist for the sake of endorsing the New Covenant that has no Torah or law? To me there has to be both blessings and cursings if the law is still relevant, but if it isn't, why do we continue to acknowledge this scripture? If we mention the curse of something, that something is not void, because the curse of that something is not void. That's like putting shingles on a house before it's built.

Galatians 3:10-13
[SUP]10 [/SUP]For as many as are of the works of the law are under the curse: for it is written, Cursed is every one that continueth not in all things which are written in the book of the law to do them.
[SUP]11 [/SUP]But that no man is justified by the law in the sight of God, it is evident: for, The just shall live by faith.
[SUP]12 [/SUP]And the law is not of faith: but, The man that doeth them shall live in them.
[SUP]13 [/SUP]Christ hath redeemed us from the curse of the law, being made a curse for us: for it is written, Cursed is every one that hangeth on a tree:

If the curse still exists, the blessings also must exist. If there are no Torah blessings for believers because the law doesn't exist, then both curses and blessings are void also. Where did the grace of God go?

 

[eternally-gratefull]

why?

Because "cursed is everyone who does not confirm and OBEY every word written."

the law was not given to show us how to be righteous, it was given to shut our mouths and confirm all are under sin. because no one can keep the law as required by God in scripture.

 

[Jeff_56]

sorry. strike one.

 

[Grandpa]

Gods Law is not a curse. The Law of the Spirit of Life in Christ Jesus is the prime example.

The 10 commandments that you work at is your curse.

You use too many general terms in order to try and show that working at the law is a blessing. You don't have understanding of the New Way provided by Christ.

Galatians 3:24-26
[SUP]24 [/SUP]Wherefore the law was our schoolmaster to bring us unto Christ, that we might be justified by faith.
[SUP]25 [/SUP]But after that faith is come, we are no longer under a schoolmaster.
[SUP]26 [/SUP]For ye are all the children of God by faith in Christ Jesus.

If the law contained blessings in it based on our work and obedience then we wouldn't need Christ, would we?

We could just rely on our "Torah" and be blessed by our work and our own understanding. Judaism 101.

If the curse still exists, the blessings also must exist. If there are no Torah blessings for believers because the law doesn't exist, then both curses and blessings are void also. Where did the grace of God go?

Believers are dead to the law. The law still exists, its just not for believers. Its for un-believers.

Believers are blessed by Christ. And Christ Alone.

 

[Origin]

Gods law and Moses law are not the same.

God gave his 10 commandments, and Moses gave his 400+ laws

 

[Grandpa]

Some professing Christians don't know the difference between Gods Law in the Old testament and Gods Law in the New testament.

There was a change?

see Hebrews 7

 

[just-me]

Believers are dead to the law. The law still exists, its just not for believers. Its for un-believers.

Believers are blessed by Christ. And Christ Alone.

I truly believe that "believers are blessed by Christ. And Christ Alone" according to this 2nd statement of yours. However your 1st statement that I quoted clearly says that the law isn't profitable for doctrine, for reproof, for correction, for instruction in righteousness for believers, but only for unbelievers, because the law is clearly a substantial part of scripture.

No unbeliever will believe that scripture is profitable for doctrine, for reproof, for correction, for instruction in righteousness, so then this verse is not applicable to anyone according to your statement that "the law still exists, its just not for believers. Its for un-believers. That's truly confusing.

"All scripture is given by inspiration of God, and is profitable for doctrine, for reproof, for correction, for instruction in righteousness:"
2 Timothy 3:16

 

[just-me]

Some professing Christians don't know the difference between Gods Law in the Old testament and Gods Law in the New testament.

There was a change?

see Hebrews 7

The Priesthood changed. What else did?

 

[just-me]

Gods law and Moses law are not the same.

God gave his 10 commandments, and Moses gave his 400+ laws

Did God preserve Moses' law in scriptures? I haven't found any laws that Moses made that were his own inventions.

 

[Origin]

Did God preserve Moses' law in scriptures?

No Moses preserved his own law in scriptures

 

[just-me]

No Moses preserved his own law in scriptures

Ya got a verse of something that says that. I thought that the whole Bible was the "Word of God." Maybe this will help us come together on this subject.

John 5:46-47
[SUP]46 [/SUP]For had ye believed Moses, ye would have believed me; for he wrote of me.
[SUP]47 [/SUP]But if ye believe not his writings, how shall ye believe my words?

 

[Origin]

Ya got a verse of something that says that. I thought that the whole Bible was the "Word of God." Maybe this will help us come together on this subject.

John 5:46-47
[SUP]46 [/SUP]For had ye believed Moses, ye would have believed me; for he wrote of me.
[SUP]47 [/SUP]But if ye believe not his writings, how shall ye believe my words?

What Moses wrote and what God wrote is two different things. God says thy shall not kill.

Moses says sacrifice animals and eat meat.

The nazureans rejected Moses saying even tho Moses obtained the law he did not get it from God for we do not eat flesh or sacrifice animals.

The verses you quoted what has that to do with the law?

 

[eternally-gratefull]

Jesus suffered the curse imposed by the law. If the law did not impose a curse on all who did not obey (as moses and paul said every word) then jesus would not have had to suffer that curse.

plain and simple.

Origin, Moses wrote the laws GOD gave him to write, not his own. the ten commands were part of those laws.

 

[just-me]

What Moses wrote and what God wrote is two different things. God says thy shall not kill.

Moses says sacrifice animals and eat meat.

The nazureans rejected Moses saying even tho Moses obtained the law he did not get it from God for we do not eat flesh or sacrifice animals.

The verses you quoted what has that to do with the law?

If Moses wrote his own law, then what Moses wrote is what gives us the information that Jesus' words are true. That's what the 2 verses I quoted would mean. It makes no sense to me that a mortal, as Moses was, would have to write things that proved the words of Messiah who is immortal.

Are you actually insinuating that mortal man proves the truth of God Almighty? I reject that.

"But if ye believe not his writings, how shall ye believe my words?" John 5:47

 

[Origin]

If Moses wrote his own law, then what Moses wrote is what gives us the information that Jesus' words are true. That's what the 2 verses I quoted would mean. It makes no sense to me that a mortal, as Moses was, would have to write things that proved the words of Messiah who is immortal.

Are you saying man proves the truth of God Almighty? I reject that.

"But if ye believe not his writings, how shall ye believe my words?" John 5:47

You might reject it but all writing is from man, unless there's something God wrote that we have today ?

 

[Jason0047]

Galatians 3:10 is saying all who are trying to attain salvation by the works of the Law of Moses is under a curse because cursed is the one who does not continue all that is contained therein. Paul is not suggesting that the Law of Moses is still binding in some way by saying this. He is merely saying that they will not be able to do everything contained therein. He is saying that even if the Law of Moses was binding, you would not be able to keep it perfectly 100% of the time without Jesus Christ (And Jesus is now abiding under the New Covenant and not the Old Covenant).

Paul says in Galatians 5:4 that,
Christ is become of no effect unto you, whosoever of you are justified by the law; ye are fallen from grace.

In fact, the Law of Moses cannot be binding because it conflicts with the Commands in the New Testament. For example, in the Old it was an eye for an eye, however, Jesus said we are to turn the other cheek if we are smitten. Jesus says you have heard it said.... an eye for an eye, etc. and then He says, But I say unto you.... (Meaning, there is a change). In the Old Tesstament, God blesses Solomon greatly with material wealth. However, in the New Testament, Jesus says it is easier for a camel to go thru the eye of a needle than for a richman to enter the Kingdom of God. Peter was told in a vision to eat unclean animals (Which is a violation of OT Law). The woman caught in the act of adultery was to be stoned according to the Law, but Jesus changed things up and said if anyone there was without sin, let them cast the first stone. But according to OT Law, they should have stoned her. But Jesus said, I came not to judge, but to save. So there is a change taking place here in the New Testament. The temple veil was torn when Christ was on the cross. This was letting us know that the animal sacrifices, the Levitical Priesthood and the Temple were no longer necessary. Jesus is now our eternal Passover Lamb and Heavenly High Priest (of a different priestly order). Again, there was a change in the Law.

In Hebrews 8:13, Jesus says shortly before He goes to the cross that a new covenant has made the first old and it is now ready to vanish away.

"In that he saith, A new covenant, he hath made the first old. Now that which decayeth and waxeth old is ready to vanish away." (Hebrews 8:13)​

For Hebrews talks about how a testamant (sort of like a "will" that a dead family passes on to their famiily) is not in effect until there is the death of the testator. Meaning the New Covenant did not officially go into effect until Christ's death. But before that, Jesus was preparing everyone for the New with ..... the teachings that are of the New Testament.

Then how is the Old Testament Scripture still valid and profitable? Well, because all of it pointed to Jesus Christ. They were shadows and types. Colossians 2:17 GWT says, "These are a shadow of the things to come, but the body [that casts the shadow] belongs to Christ"

For Jesus said, "You study the Scriptures diligently because you think that in them you have eternal life. These are the very Scriptures that testify about me," (John 5:39 NIV).

Now, does that mean Christians are anarchists and are under no law whatsoever? No, most certainly not. True Christians are followers of Jesus Christ and they obey His Word. What Word is that? Well, there are many Commands given to us by Jesus and his apostles in the New Testament. There is still the Law of Christ (Galatians 6:2) and the Law of the Spirit of Life in Christ Jesus (Romans 8:2). For Paul says we establish the Law. Paul says that what he writes to us should be considered as the Lord's Commandments. There are 1,050 + New Testament Commands.

1,050 New Testament Commands | Christian Assemblies International

Surely are we required to keep all those AND .... the 613 Law of Moses, too? I say that you cannot. Because they both conflict with each other.

Jesus said, I came not to destroy, but to fulfill. The Law of Moses also was referred to as: "the Law and the prophets." Meaning, there are still OT prophecies that still need to be fulfilled in the future. However, the Law of Moses has been fulfilled by Christ on the cross. This is why Paul says, "Blotting out the handwriting of ordinances that was against us, which was contrary to us, and took it out of the way, nailing it to his cross;" (Colossians 2:14). So the Law of Moses has been nailed to the cross. The handwriting of ordinances that were against us. Because if you broke certain laws in the Law of Moses, the penalty could be physical death for you.

Think of the Old Law like it an apple seed. If I came to destroy the apple seed, I would take a hammer and smash it. But.... if came to fulfill that apple seed, I would plant it in the ground and it would grow into an apple tree. Hence, why the Scriptures say the Law is a school master to bring us unto Christ.

In fact, the author of Hebrews says specifically that there is a change in the law.

"​

For the priesthood being changed, there is made of necessity a change also of the law." (Hebrews 7:12)​

Jesus says, no man puts new wine into old wine skins.

 

[atwhatcost]

I also consider grammar a curse. If I see something should be done a certain way, and that certain way is the right way, but I can't do it, even knowing that... Well? What else is that but a curse?

 

[crossnote]

Origin is just mouthing on CC, he's not even a Christian.

The law is not a curse but those who attempt at a right standing before God via the law are cursed.

 

[eternally-gratefull]

Origin is just mouthing on CC, he's not even a Christian.

The law is not a curse but those who attempt at a right standing before God via the law are cursed.

ie, everyone not saved by the grace of God, having the things which were against them, apposed to them, and having nailed that curse to the cross. Is under the curse of the law.

 

[Origin]

Origin is just mouthing on CC, he's not even a Christian.

The law is not a curse but those who attempt at a right standing before God via the law are cursed.

Arnt we all just mouthing ..

But you pull the same card when you know I'm right lol like I have to be a Christian to discuss bible topics