See Romans 1:19-20The baby had nothing to do with its birth. It simply happened to the infant. So too when one is born again. The Spirit blows where it wills.
See Romans 1:19-20The baby had nothing to do with its birth. It simply happened to the infant. So too when one is born again. The Spirit blows where it wills.
The account leaves no room for doubt. The individuals were water baptized in the name of the Lord Jesus.In Acts 10:47-48 the Greek word baptisthenai is used. It is the aorist infinitive passive form of the verb. it is my understanding that an aorist infinitive can be thought of as a verbal noun. So, is he telling them to go get immersed in water, or is he saying they have been immersed already.
Perhaps Peter is, from a position of authority, declaring them to be immersed already.
“And he commanded them to be baptized in the name of Jesus Christ. Then they asked him to remain for some days.”
Acts 10:48 ESV
https://bible.com/bible/59/act.10.48.ESV
I don't understand how my insistance that obedience is required under both covenants is a deflective response. I'm interested to know why you responded this way. Thanks!Nice try but I predict a deflective response and long explaination of why that isn’t true or complete misdirection
A couple of things actually don't add up to me about Matthew 28:19.If either way was acceptable why is there no record of the apostles water baptizing anyone using the phrase, in the name of the Father, Son and Holy Ghost? This is very important to consider since the word says things are established by at least 2-3 witnesses/references. And church history reveals the phrase was instituted by forerunners of the RCC around 325 A.D. Their own literature confirms this fact.
In all detailed accounts believing in Jesus was the first step of faith. And without that belief eternal life would not be possible. However, after that additional steps of faith were required; repentance, submitting to water baptism in the name of Jesus for remission of sin and receiving the Holy Ghost. When Peter first presented this gospel message the biblical record makes it clear that only after obedience were the individuals added. (Acts 2:36-42)So when someone has Christ revealed to them by the Father, eternal life according to John 17:3, they possess eternal life but aren't saved? That sounds right to you?
You still haven't dealt with the fact that you have people who are hostile to God, who do no good, and who possess no righteousness obeying God previous to God acting upon them. How is that possible?
The account leaves no room for doubt. The individuals were water baptized in the name of the Lord Jesus.
"Can any man forbid water, that these should not be baptized, which have received the Holy Ghost as well as we?
And he commanded them to be baptized in the name of the Lord. "
I'll look into this.Are you referring to when Jesus told Peter of his impending denial? The word converted used their is not salvation, but restoration. Which fits perfectly with Jesus' later words to Peter...feed my sheep. Notice, this came before Pentecost, and Peter was restored; not converted or saved.
The sum of God's word is truth. As such, if a verse seems to contradict another. The error is in a person's understanding because the word of God does not contradict itself.And I showed you that converted there did not mean salvation but reconciliation. I went on to show where that reconciliation took place, and that it preceded Pentecost.
Peter certainly filled the requirement of salvation because he possessed eternal life. That, according to John 17:3, is knowing God and knowing Christ.
As I noted previously, I do not agree with your belief that man has no choice in the matter.Paul wrote that well after having been converted. And he wrote it as an exhortation to those who are saved to continue in holiness. It has nothing to do with conversion.
STILL...you have failed to relate how someone opposed and hostile towards God, who does no good, and who possesses no righteousness, suddenly turns to God. Can you?
Many translation versions use the word disqualified, since teachers are to exercise spiritual discipline for effectiveness in ministry.Paul specifically stated it was possible for him to be a castaway. "I keep under my body, and bring it into subjection:
lest that by any means, when I have preached to others, I myself should be a castaway." 1 Cor. 9:27
Exactly and the NIV says "disqualified for the prize." Salvation is a gift (Romans 5:15,16,18; 6:23; Ephesians 2:8) and not a prize.Many translation versions use the word disqualified, since teachers are to exercise spiritual discipline for effectiveness in ministry.
The OT foreshadows many antitypes that came about in the NT after Jesus' resurrection.Didnt see where it was in Jesus name.
The invisible things of God are known by the things that are seen. Hence, the spiritual is discerned from what is seen. Physical birth teaches about spiritual birth. Thus, having nothing to do with your physical birth portends having nothing to do with your spiritual birth.See Romans 1:19-20
No, it is the only step in faith. Faith comes by hearing, and hearing by the word of God. Once you believe, you have faith. Hence, since we are saved by grace THROUGH FAITH, anyone possessing faith is saved.In all detailed accounts believing in Jesus was the first step of faith. And without that belief eternal life would not be possible. However, after that additional steps of faith were required; repentance, submitting to water baptism in the name of Jesus for remission of sin and receiving the Holy Ghost. When Peter first presented this gospel message the biblical record makes it clear that only after obedience were the individuals added. (Acts 2:36-42)
I don't believe as you do that only certain people are destined for eternal life while others have no chance. Jesus said that those who hunger and thirst after righteousness shall be filled. Sadly, some make the wrong choice and never pursue Him.
It's not about salvation, but restoration. You can try to make it fit, but it doesn't support your argument.I'll look into this.
However, what Peter fed Jesus' lamb and sheep is recorded in Acts 2:4-42, 8:12-18, 10:43-48. And all reveal the need to believe in Jesus, repent, be water baptized in Jesus' name for remission of sin and to receive the Holy Ghost.
You should take your own advice here.The sum of God's word is truth. As such, if a verse seems to contradict another. The error is in a person's understanding because the word of God does not contradict itself.
Jesus said unless you repent you will perish. Luke 13:3
He said those who believe and are baptized shall be saved. Mark 16:15-16
Paul explained if any man have not the Spirit of Christ, he is none of his. Rom. 8:9
You can disagree, but you didn't create your physical life, and no one can create their own spiritual life. Being born from above tells you who births someone spiritually. And the whole purpose in Jesus relaying that the Spirit who births spiritually moves sovereignly is to further this truth.As I noted previously, I do not agree with your belief that man has no choice in the matter.
And Paul specifically stated it was possible for him to be a castaway. "I keep under my body, and bring it into subjection: lest that by any means, when I have preached to others, I myself should be a castaway." 1 Cor. 9:27
That is a good distinction, thanks for adding that, Dan! .Exactly and the NIV says "disqualified for the prize." Salvation is a gift (Romans 5:15,16,18; 6:23; Ephesians 2:8) and not a prize.
The NT did not begin until after Jesus' death, burial, resurrection and He was glorified and poured out the Holy Ghost at Pentecost.A couple of things actually don't add up to me about Matthew 28:19.
1. How come the Gospels of Mark, John, and Luke that cover the same incident before the Ascension of Yeshua that describes the conversation we read in Matthew 28 is not listed in the other 3 Gospels?
2. How come we never see anyone being either [water or spirit] Baptized anywhere in the New Testament if that was the command of Yeshua?
Something just doesn't add up.
I will look at what you've mentioned; however, all accounts reference baptism in the name of Jesus, and individuals receiving the Holy Ghost as well. As such both water and Spirit are involved.It doesn’t seem to read that way in the original language. You should study the interlinear version and also the meaning of kolysai. The way verse 47 is rendered in Thayers Lexicon under the definition of kolysai is particularly interesting.