The Error is Baptism in Jesus name only for salvation

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Amen. Name is authority. These people who make a big deal about the name haven't read one of their own proof texts:

Isaiah 9:6
For unto us a child is born, unto us a son is given: and the government shall be upon his shoulder: and his name shall be called Wonderful, Counsellor, The mighty God, The everlasting Father, The Prince of Peace.

Why don't they baptize people into the name of "Wonderful, Counsellor, The mighty God, The everlasting Father, The Prince of Peace"

Could it be that the name in that verse is talking about titles and authority the Son has?

Stop in the name of the law. What is the law's name?
Winner
 
(1) One is that both repentance and baptism result in remission of sins. In this view, baptism is essential for salvation. The problem with this interpretation is that elsewhere in Scripture forgiveness of sins is based on faith alone (Jn 3:16,36; Ro 4:1-17; 11:6; Ga 3:8-9; Ep 2:8-9; etc.). Furthermore Peter, the same speaker, later promised forgiveness of sins on the basis of faith alone (Ac 5:31; 10:43; 13:38; 26:18).
You are rather off, let me explain.

You are presenting these verses as definitive in verbiage but they are clearly not written in this way.

Your sentence "The problem with this interpretation is that elsewhere in Scripture forgiveness of sins is based on faith alone" is clearly off base. None of the verses you are presenting have a definitive in them, not even one. For you to simply add an "absolute adjective" such as alone modifies the meaning of the passages.

If the author of any of these passages meant for them to be all-encompassing they could have simply done it themselves.
 
You are rather off, let me explain.

You are presenting these verses as definitive in verbiage but they are clearly not written in this way.

Your sentence "The problem with this interpretation is that elsewhere in Scripture forgiveness of sins is based on faith alone" is clearly off base. None of the verses you are presenting have a definitive in them, not even one. For you to simply add an "absolute adjective" such as alone modifies the meaning of the passages.

If the author of any of these passages meant for them to be all-encompassing they could have simply done it themselves.
In your opinion. You cannot refute the other passages that emphasize repentance and faith. You simply choose one of the choices that least fit the Koine grammar in order to support your position. I don't know anyone that says to avoid or demeans water baptism, they simply emphasize the “Finished “ work of our Christ and the fact that one’s repentance should preceed immersion in H2O.
 
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Most every honest Theologian agrees with what the Greek actually says, versus the somewhat ambiguous English translation;
Are there any translations that are not as ambiguous as the English translations seem to be?

French, German, Dutch?
 
Why would one go to a translation for clarity when the Greek is available?
Because I don't understand Greek.

Surely at least one translation of the Bible beside Greek is not ambiguous on this verse.

Just one?
 
In your opinion.
"Opinion"???

The fact that there is no absolute adjectives in these verses is most certainly not opinion.

You cannot refute the other passages that emphasize repentance and faith.
Refute what? There is nothing in the passages that needs to be refuted. It is you who is modifying the passages by adding your chosen definitive.

What I am refuting is your amendments to these passages.

If we are allowed to add a definitive to any verse we choose then nothing in the Bible is safe.
 
Because I don't understand Greek.

Surely at least one translation of the Bible beside Greek is not ambiguous on this verse.

Just one?
When I get home I will see what I can find. I will fire up an old program that has 30+ English translations and dozens of non English.
 
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FYI Jesus saved by the work of the cross by grace through faith. Water baptism is what one does after salvation because it is an act of obedience One who is lost in sin can't obey, they ARE dead to sin already.

Saying something is false doesn't make it so. Jesus and Paul both said the same thing.

My KJV says that "... baptism is not a requirement for salvation in the first place" is NOT Truth.

John 3:5 - Jesus answered, “Truly, truly, I say to you, unless one is born of water and the Spirit, he cannot enter the kingdom of God.

Mark 16:16 - Whoever believes and is baptized will be saved, but whoever does not believe will be condemned.

Acts 2:38 - Then Peter said to them, Repent, and let every one of you be baptized in the name of Jesus Christ for the remission of sins; and you shall receive the gift of the Holy Spirit.

( Just a few of many, Bible verses, saying that repentance and turning to Christ to wash away of our sin, is the "spiritual" act of obedience, which is "Baptism" and required for salvation. )

Where is "repentance" and "conversion", the born again into Christ, experience, in your religion?
 
Because I don't understand Greek.

Surely at least one translation of the Bible beside Greek is not ambiguous on this verse.

Just one?


There are a few English translations and paraphrases that lean toward linking εἰς ἄφεσιν τῶν ἁμαρτιῶν (“for forgiveness of sins”) more directly with repent than with be baptized. These generally reflect the grammatical argument that Luke’s plural/singular shift puts forgiveness with the collective command “repent,” while baptism is each individual’s outward act.

1. New American Standard Bible (NASB, esp. 1995 edition)
“Peter said to them, ‘Repent, and each of you be baptized in the name of Jesus Christ for the forgiveness of your sins; and you will receive the gift of the Holy Spirit.’”
The punctuation leaves the possibility that “forgiveness” modifies “repent,” though it can also be read both ways. NASB’s footnotes often acknowledge the ambiguity.
2. Holman Christian Standard Bible (HCSB, 2004)
“Repent,” Peter said to them, “and be baptized, each of you, in the name of Jesus the Messiah, for the forgiveness of your sins, and you will receive the gift of the Holy Spirit.”
Again, the rendering mirrors the Greek, but many Baptist interpreters (including those following Robertson) read the grammar as forgiveness attaching primarily to “repent.”
3. Expanded Bible / Amplified-Style Versions
Some modern expansions will insert notes like:
“Repent [change your hearts and lives], and each of you be baptized … so that your sins may be forgiven [or as a demonstration of repentance].”



Translations/Paraphrases That Explicitly Reflect This View
1. New English Translation (NET Bible) – with translator’s note
“…Repent, and each one of you be baptized in the name of Jesus Christ for the forgiveness of your sins, and you will receive the gift of the Holy Spirit.”
The NET note (tn) explains: “It is possible to understand the phrase ‘for the forgiveness of your sins’ as modifying ‘repent’ rather than ‘be baptized’.”
2. God’s Word Translation (GW)
“Peter answered them, ‘All of you must turn to God and change the way you think and act, and each of you must be baptized … so that your sins will be forgiven.’”
The paraphrase “turn … change … and be baptized” separates the repentance clause, making forgiveness appear to flow from it primarily.

Scholarly Support
• A. T. Robertson himself leaned toward View C in his Word Pictures in the NT. He wrote that “εἰς ἄφεσιν” is grammatically closer to repent and that baptism is the visible expression of that inward change.
• Other grammarians (e.g., J. R. Mantey) argue that the construction supports forgiveness linked with repentance, while baptism is commanded but not the causal instrument.



Greek Grammarians / Linguists Who View Repentance at the Forefront in Acts
1. J. R. Mantey (Manual Grammar of the Greek New Testament, with H. E. Dana, 1927)
• Mantey argued that the construction “εἰς ἄφεσιν” here ties forgiveness primarily to repentance. Baptism is commanded but is seen as the public testimony of the repentance.
2. Nigel Turner (Grammar of New Testament Greek, vol. 3, Syntax, 1963)
• Turner notes that in Acts 2:38, the plural “repent” and the singular “be baptized” suggest repentance as the collective requirement for forgiveness, with baptism applied individually.
3. A. T. Robertson (Word Pictures in the New Testament, Acts 2:38 entry, 1930s)
• Robertson stresses the number shift (plural → singular) and argues that forgiveness attaches grammatically to repentance. He called baptism “the outward act” showing repentance.


Commentators and Theologians Using Greek Argumentation
1. Charles Hodge (Princeton Theological Seminary, 19th century)
• While not writing a Greek grammar, he appealed to the Greek syntax to argue that forgiveness is tied to repentance, with baptism understood as the natural sequel.
2. F. F. Bruce (The Book of Acts, NICNT, 1954/1988 rev.)
• Bruce acknowledged the syntax can favor linking forgiveness with repentance. He stresses baptism as “inseparably associated” with conversion in the early church, but not itself the cause of forgiveness.
3. Richard N. Longenecker (Acts, Expositor’s Bible Commentary, 1981)
• Longenecker likewise leans toward View C, explaining that grammatically the phrase can be tied to repentance, though baptism was still assumed as the normative response.
4. Daniel B. Wallace (Greek Grammar Beyond the Basics, 1996)
• Wallace discusses Acts 2:38 in connection with εἰς and notes that there are strong grammatical grounds for associating forgiveness with repentance. He explicitly cites Robertson’s view approvingly as a legitimate reading.
 
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(3) A third view takes the clause and be baptized, every one of you, in the name of Jesus Christ as parenthetical. Several factors support this interpretation: (a) The verb makes a distinction between singular and plural verbs and nouns. The verb “repent” is plural and so is the pronoun “your” in the clause so that your sins may be forgiven (lit., “unto the remission of your sins,” eis aphesin tōn hamartiōn hymōn). Therefore the verb “repent” must go with the purpose of forgiveness of sins.

On the other hand the imperative “be baptized” is singular, setting it off from the rest of the sentence. (b) This concept fits with Peter's proclamation in Ac 10:43 in which the same expression “sins may be forgiven” (aphesin hamartiōn) occurs. There it is granted on the basis of faith alone. (c) In Lk 24:47 and Ac 5:31 the same writer, Luke, indicates that repentance results in remission of sins.
Amen! The only logical and Biblical conclusion when properly harmonizing scripture with scripture is that faith in Jesus Christ "implied in genuine repentance" (rather than water baptism) brings the remission of sins and the gift of the Holy Spirit (Luke 24:47; Acts 2:38; 3:19; 5:31; 10:43-47; 11:17-18; 13:38-39; 15:7-9; 16:31; 26:18) *Perfect Harmony* :D
 
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I certainly agree with you on this!:LOL:

Do you proof-read before posting?


Did you actually read what I wrote?
Reread post# 1759.

You are quick to respond and shoot from the hip too often.

Lamar:
"He is saying to not get baptized so that your sins are forgiven and receive the gift of the Holy Spirit."

In other words, ignore the following.

Acts 2:38
Then Peter said unto them, “Repent and be baptized, every one of you, in the name of Jesus Christ for the remission of sins; and ye shall receive the gift of the Holy Ghost.
 
On the cross, there was two other people with Jesus. Was the one who Jesus said would be in the Kingdom of heaven, was he baptized by the water?
 
On the cross, there was two other people with Jesus. Was the one who Jesus said would be in the Kingdom of heaven, was he baptized by the water?
Now certain folks may try to argue that the thief on the cross may have been converted, was water baptized, yet the fruit of that is being crucified as a thief? - (highly unlikely)

In Matthew 27:39-44, we see that those who passed by, along with the chief priests' scribes and elders blasphemed, mocked and shook their heads at Jesus and EVEN THE ROBBERS WHO WERE CRUCIFIED WITH HIM REVILED HIM WITH THE SAME THING. More fruit? I certainly don't see being crucified as a thief, blaspheming, mocking and shaking your head at Jesus as being the fruit of repentance/faith.

Yet, moments later, we see that one of the thieves had a "change of mind" (repentance) placed his faith in Christ for salvation and was saved. (Luke 23:40-43) Of course, he died while still hanging on the cross before having the opportunity to be water baptized afterwards.
 
Now certain folks may try to argue that the thief on the cross may have been converted, was water baptized, yet the fruit of that is being crucified as a thief? - (highly unlikely)

In Matthew 27:39-44, we see that those who passed by, along with the chief priests' scribes and elders blasphemed, mocked and shook their heads at Jesus and EVEN THE ROBBERS WHO WERE CRUCIFIED WITH HIM REVILED HIM WITH THE SAME THING. More fruit? I certainly don't see being crucified as a thief, blaspheming, mocking and shaking your head at Jesus as being the fruit of repentance/faith.

Yet, moments later, we see that one of the thieves had a "change of mind" (repentance) placed his faith in Christ for salvation and was saved. (Luke 23:40-43) Of course, he died while still hanging on the cross before having the opportunity to be water baptized afterwards.
The question is simple.

Was he baptized?

If you say you know for sure then you are lying or claiming esoteric knowledge.

Guessing is not knowing.

Besides, using the thief on the cross as a proof text to negate the need for the remission of sins at baptism is rather weak.
 
The question is simple.

Was he baptized?

If you say you know for sure then you are lying or claiming esoteric knowledge.

Guessing is not knowing.

Besides, using the thief on the cross as a proof text to negate the need for the remission of sins at baptism is rather weak.
As I already demonstrated from scripture - it was highly unlikely that he was already converted and water baptized. Now maybe you consider blaspheming, mocking and shaking your head at Jesus as being the fruit of repentance/faith but I certainly don't.

The need for remission of sins takes place at repentance/faith prior to receiving water baptism. (Luke 24:47; Acts 3:19; 5:31; 10:43-47; 11:17,18; 13:38-39; 15:7-9; 16:31; 26:18)

After considering the totality of scripture, your argument about receiving remission of sins through water baptism/dipped or condemned is weak. BTW: Did you read post 1,790? :)
 
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As I already demonstrated from scripture - it was highly unlikely that he was already converted and water baptized. Now maybe you consider blaspheming, mocking and shaking your head at Jesus as being the fruit of repentance/faith but I certainly don't.

The need for remission of sins takes place at repentance/faith prior to receiving water baptism. (Luke 24:47; Acts 3:19; 5:31; 10:43-47; 11:17,18; 13:38-39; 15:7-9; 16:31; 26:18)

After considering the totality of scripture, your argument about receiving remission of sins through water baptism/dipped or condemned is weak. BTW: Did you read post 1,790? :)
You don't seem to grasp the question.

Was the thief on the cross baptized? Since the Bible does not give an answer then your "highly unlikely" is an assumption.

The best answer is simply we don't know.

Theology cannot be based on assumptions.

BTW, I also do not think he was baptized during the ministry of Jesus or John the Baptist either.

On the issue of post 1790, this is nothing but the old and dead theory that Acts 2:38 has been mistranslated in every version of the Bible both past and present as well as every Bible in every language.

Peter did not proclaim to the crowd that they were to be baptized because they already had the remission of sins.

There are no Bibles that translate Acts 2:38 as "repent and be baptized because of the remission of your sins.

And that includes all old and modern Bibles written in Greek.
 
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The question is simple.

Was he baptized?

If you say you know for sure then you are lying or claiming esoteric knowledge.

Guessing is not knowing.

Besides, using the thief on the cross as a proof text to negate the need for the remission of sins at baptism is rather weak.
My argument is not weak based on the scriptures that I shared with you. I hear some folks in the CoC say that the thief on the cross died under the OT mandate and did not need to be baptized while other folks in the CoC ask the question, "how do we know the thief on the cross was not previously baptized?" It's you folks who are grasping at straws in a vain effort to support your false gospel. You would walk around mountains of grace in order to find water.
 
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At what point did Quasimodo fall in love with Esmerelda, and determined to defend her to his death? Answer: In the moment that she showed her compassion toward him by offering him a drink of water.


The thief was baptized in(to) Jesus' Name as evidenced by his last words to the other thief in defense of Jesus' Christhood, and to Jesus Himself, 'remember me...' Notice that he 'asked' this by using the sentence structure of a command. Was he concerned that Jesus might forget him? No, he spoke with confidence in Jesus to keep him, and Jesus replied with His blessed assurance.

God's love is His living water.