This proves that the KJV is not perfect. In Acts 15, James quoted a prophecy in Amos 9:12. It matches the translation found in the Septuagint. The KJV is different.
Amos 9:12 in Acts 15 (KJV)
That the residue of men might seek after the Lord, and all the Gentiles, upon whom my name is called, saith the Lord, who doeth all these things. Acts 15:17
Amos 9:12 in the Septuagint
That the remnant of men, and all the Gentiles upon whom my name is called, may earnestly seek [me], saith the Lord who does all these things. Amos 9:12
Amos 9:12 in the KJV
That they may possess the remnant of Edom, and of all the heathen, which are called by my name, saith the LORD that doeth this. Amos 9:12
Hi,
Is this your final answer? I hope it’s not!
Here are some errors to those who feel or think they have proven the KJV to be in error on the basis of the following:
1.
Translational Error. I have nothing to offer you on this matter since this is not a translational error on the KJV as supposed.
2.
Conjectural Emendation. It means to “change the text to what you think it should be.” This process use by the Bible Critic is giving an “educated guess”. This thinking is originated by Origen from the standpoint of Platonic philosophy. A classic example of “Conjectural emendation” is found in Mark 1:2 on the basis that the quotation is from Isaiah. But verse 2 quotes Malachi and verse 3 quotes Isaiah. The KJV is correct on this matter. The LXX is which is so far cited in the above statement is the work of Origen found in his HEXAPLA, a six column polyglot Old Testament. Yet again the statement above does not indulged in a sort of “conjectural emendation.”
3.
Scribal Error. Beware of Bible critics/correctors which tend to point “scribal errors” as a means of overcoming Bible difficulties. Example of this is in Matthew 19:24 where textual critics say the word “kameelos” (Camel) was originally “kamelos” (rope) and some scribes messed up. But then again, the above statement is not a scribal error.
4.
Typo error. I really doubt that this is a typo error, although it is stated as quoted saying “it is written” to what James says and what the italics on your above statement seems to employ.
5.
Interpretational Fallacies. The above problem presents more on the interpretation of the text over other errors as pointed. Context of the passage is very important. Apostle Paul and Barnabas during the council of Jerusalem declared “all things” that God had done on them.
Act 15:4 And when they were come to Jerusalem, they were received of the church, and
of the apostles and elders, and
they declared all things that God had done with them.
I see where you coming from but you missed a “word” or “a phrase” in the context of Acts 15 that makes the KJV correct. According to Amos, even though Israel sinned and judgment must fall, still God’s plan for the house of David and promise to Abraham have not failed and will ultimately be realized. Though it is marred, it is not beyond God’s ability to repair. Yes, there’s nothing difficult to Him. The question that of “heathen” being called by God by his name is not impossible to Him. Yes, He surely can do this!
Amos 9:11 In that day
will I raise up the tabernacle of David that is fallen, and close up the breaches thereof; and I will raise up his ruins, and I will build it as in the days of old:
Amos 9:
12 That they may possess the remnant of Edom, and of all the heathen, which are called by my name
, saith the LORD that doeth this.
The passage was quoted then by James in Acts 15 to demonstrate God’s intention to save the Jews and Gentiles alike. Can the Lord does saving the Jews and Gentiles alike. Yes, it is the “Lord, who doeth all these things”.
Acts 15:16 After this I will return, and will build again the tabernacle of David, which is fallen down; and I will build again the ruins thereof, and I will set it up:
Acts 15:17 That the residue of men might seek after the Lord, and all the Gentiles, upon whom my name is called,
saith the Lord, who doeth all these things
Now, Amos said “LORD that doeth
this” in bold typed faced is in singular form.
While James says “
these things” in plural form.
Reconciliation:
Amos = the passage is centered in the people of Israel. (singular)
Luke the writer of Acts as quoted by James = focuses on the JEW’s and the Gentiles as per context (plural)
But where’s Edom and the heathen as Amos said? Why James didn’t say anything where in he says “as it is written” Did James quotation incorrect?
The answer to the seeming problem is that the scripture says:
Acts 15:15
And to this agree the words of the prophets; as it is written,
Thus the word “Gentiles “as per Acts account is still in agreement with the words “ Edom and the heathen.” In agreement that is period.
Well, I was just only fascinated with your Avatar not to deride as something implying or saying but “HeRoseFromtheDead” who?
Jesus
Lazarus
Women (Hebrews 11:35)
I’ll take my pick. It’s Jesus!
God cares,
