The Old Testament saints were saved just like the New Testaments saints, by grace through faith. Why in the world did the Apostle Paul teach at Romans 4:1-3 that Abraham was justified by faith? In fact, your guy in the video mentioned Job, David and others. Look what Paul said at Romans 4:6, "just as David also speaks of the blessing (what blessing?) upon the man to whom God reckons righteousness APART FROM WORKS."
So, if the thief under the old covenant was saved without being baptised why would God make it harder under the new covenant to get water baptised (which is a work) or your not saved unless you do?
So, if the thief under the old covenant was saved without being baptised why would God make it harder under the new covenant to get water baptised (which is a work) or your not saved unless you do?
In both cases we see repent, baptized/baptism/remission of sins. So in Mark 1:4 and Luke 3:3, was this baptism of repentance FOR (in order to obtain) the remission of sins was it or FOR (in regards to/on the basis of) the remission of sins received upon repentance? *It would have to be the latter in order to agree with the Pentecost argument of water salvationists. In Matthew 3:11, we read: I baptize you with water FOR repentance.. If translated "in order to obtain" the verse does not make sense. I baptize you with water FOR (in order to obtain) repentance?
Whatever baptism is "for" in Acts 2:38, it's "for" in Mark 1:4 and Luke 3:3 - "in regards to" remission of sins received upon repentance. See how the water baptism is not necessary for salvation before Pentecost but is necessary for salvation after Pentecost argument doesn't hold water? Before AND after Pentecost, salvation is through belief/faith "apart from water baptism" (Genesis 15:6; Luke 8:12; John 1:12; 3:15,16,18,36; 6:40,47; 11:25,26; Acts 10:43-47; 11:17-18; 13:39; 16:31; Romans 1:16; 3:22-28; 4:2-6; 5:1; 1 Corinthians 1:21; Galatians 2:16; Ephesians 2:8,9; Philippians 3:9; 2 Timothy 3:15; 1 John 5:13 etc..).