that's very Instructive to see how a word has evolved through different cultures and times! but the problem is that you assume the original name of Jesus was uttered in hebrew Yeshua (ישוע
... while it was not.
Jesus spoke Aramaic, his original name was pronounced in the Aramaic language ..
His name is not the Hebrew "Yeshua`" or "Yahushuwa`", neither is it the Arabic "Yasu'a" which the Arab Christians claim. It's Interesting to note that the Persian (Farsi) Bible admits Jesus' name is "`Eesaa"!
Peace
PS.: the distinction you made between the sound 'Seen' and 'Sheen' is also interesting... perhaps if you could provide us with more information on that
Yes, Hebrew and Aramaic (not to be confused with Assyrian which is neo-Aramaic) have the same exact alphabet except for the "vav" and "waw" (like the Arabic waow) distinction.
So that is why when I said ישוע is the Hebrew/Aramaic name I was basing that off of the Septuagint and Hebrew Tanakh. If you were to look at, for example Ezra 5:5 (2) in the Greek Septuagint you see...
Ezra 5:5 οι ιερεις υιοι φινεες υιου ααρων
ιησους ο του ιωσεδεκ του σαραιου και ιωακιμ ο του ζοροβαβελ του σαλαθιηλ εκ του οικου του δαυιδ εκ της γενεας φαρες φυλης δε ιουδα
Ezra 5:2 (same verse) בֵּאדַ֡יִן קָ֠מוּ זְרֻבָּבֶ֤ל בַּר־שְׁאַלְתִּיאֵל֙ וְ
יֵשׁ֣וּעַ בַּר־יֹֽוצָדָ֔ק וְשָׁרִ֣יו לְמִבְנֵ֔א בֵּ֥ית אֱלָהָ֖א דִּ֣י בִירֽוּשְׁלֶ֑ם וְעִמְּהֹ֛ון דִֽי־אֱלָהָ֖א מְסָעֲדִ֥ין לְהֹֽון
Ezra 5:2(5) So Zerubbabel the son of Shealtiel and
Jeshua the son of Jozadak rose up and began to build the house of God which is in Jerusalem; and the prophets of God were with them, helping them.
So we see even the MT translates the name Ἰησοῦς (Iesous) into ישוע (Yeshua).
Matthew 1:16
ιακωβ δε εγεννησεν τον ιωσηφ τον ανδρα μαριας εξ ης εγεννηθη
ιησους ο λεγομενος χριστος
Matthew 1:16
And Jacob begot Joseph the husband of Mary, of whom was born
Jesus who is called Christ.
So. Yeshua (the Aramaic/Hebrew) and Iesous (koine Greek) are interchangeable because Iesous is simply Yeshua transliterated into Greek.
To answer your question why the "seen" and "sheen" distinction is made between translating/transliterating in Arabic/Hebrew I'll give you an article on it.
Hebrew and Arabic are both Semitic languages, and they are closely related, there are certain well-known rules which sounds/letters in Hebrew correspond to which sounds/letters in Arabic. Specifically, the Hebrew letter Shin regularly turns into the Arabic letter Sin, e.g. the Hebrew word for peace, shalom, corresponds to the Arabic word salam. According to those linguistic rules and relationships between Hebrew and Arabic, Yasu' is the proper Arabic equivalent for the Hebrew Yeshua':
Yeshua' = Yod + Shin + Waw + 'Ain
Yasu' = Ya + Sin + Waw + 'Ain
Again, the linguistically most appropriate Arabic equivalent for the Hebrew Yeshua' is Yasu'. Thus, the traditional Arabic name for Jesus is the linguistically most appropriate one. The transition from Yeshua' to Yasu' follows the common rules of phonetic changes from Hebrew to Arabic. In that sense, Yasu' is the true Arabic name of Jesus. There is nothing arbitrary about it. On the contrary, Yasu' is the natural equivalent of Yeshua'.
On the other hand, it is a long-standing mystery where Esa, the quranic name for Jesus, is coming from. Although there exist a number of theories that are more or less convincing, we will probably never know for sure.
To summarize, Jesus' original name was certainly not Arabic — neither the version Esa, found in the Qur'an, nor the version Yasu' used in Arabic Bible translations. His original and therefore true name was Hebrew. The linguistically most appropriate transcription of the Hebrew name Yeshua' into Arabic is Yasu', the very name that has traditionally been used by Arab Christians, probably already before the advent of Islam. Since Esa was not Jesus' original name, it cannot be maintained that it was divinely revealed since that would imply that God revealed a wrong name. Therefore, the name Esa was invented just as Yasu' was invented, the difference being that Yasu' is the linguistically appropriate transliteration of Yeshua', while Esa is not. The only question remaining is how did the name Esa arise?
Because of the above stated facts, the following verse presents a real problem, at least to some or even many Muslims:
(Remember) when the angels said: "O Maryam (Mary)! Verily, Allah gives you the glad tidings of a Word ["Be!" - and he was! i.e. 'Iesa (Jesus) the son of Maryam (Mary)] from Him, his name will be the Messiah 'Iesa (Jesus), the son of Maryam (Mary), held in honour in this world and in the Hereafter, and will be one of those who are near to Allah." Sura 3:45 Al-Hilali and Khan
Stripping the statement from all the various insertions added in by the translators, the message of the angels to Mary allegedly was: "O Maryam! Verily, Allah gives you the glad tidings of a Word from Him, his name will be the Messiah 'Iesa, the son of Maryam, held in honour in this world and in the Hereafter, and will be one of those who are near to Allah." Because of this verse many Muslims like Abualrub feel obligated to claim that Esa is the true name of Jesus. After all, that is his divinely revealed name according to the Qur'an!
Historically, it is impossible, but what should or could Muslims do? Somehow the name Esa must be justified if they do not want to admit an error in the Qur'an.
read more at:'Isa -- the true name of Jesus?