Again, 1:7 says, "ye who are troubled
rest/repose with us IN THE REVELATION of the Lord Jesus from heaven, with His mighty angels,
taking VENGEANCE on... " (did you see my recent post on the concept of His "vengeance"??)
It doesn't say, "will receive rest when" nor "will give rest when" but "rest/repose with us
IN THE REVELATION of"
Let me put it like this, and see if you can grasp "why" the VAST MAJORITY of "prophecies" throughout Scripture have not been spelled out in nice, neat, fully-developed and "date-stamped" paragraphs of fullest explicit-ness!!! but instead are like a smattering of snippets here and there, a phrase placed side by side with another phrase of something else that takes place thousands of years apart from the other thing, and the like.
If the Lord spelled it out, point blank, "the Rapture will take place ON __/__/__ [insert specific calendar date]," then that would totally defeat the purpose of what He will be "putting into play" following our Rapture[/Departure] which is spelled out in 2Th2:10-12 (that is, IN the "dark/darkness" / "IN THE NIGHT" aspect of the entire long "DOTL" time period, meaning, IN/DURING the trib years [the yrs that "the man of sin" will be in operation]), which passage says,
"
10 and in every deception of wickedness
unto those perishing,
in return for which they did not receive the love of the truth in order for them to be saved.
11 And because of this,
God will send to them a working of delusion, for them to believe what is false,
12 in order that all those not having believed the truth but having delighted in unrighteousness
should be judged." [this passage is referring to a DURATION of this, not a split-second "judgment" at His "RETURN"]
If it were written
even more explicitly than even the OT prophecies were written (which those in Acts 3, Peter was saying had OVERLOOKED/BYPASSED "the Suffering Servant" aspects of the OT prophecies [eyeing only the "Conquering King" aspects alone], THUS themselves having a hand in fulfilling those very aspects [His rejection and crucifixion/Suffering Servant aspects]),
then HOW would you propose "the working of DELUSION" would come to fruition (unfold and play out), seeing as things would be "spelled out explicitly in DIRECT WORDING with straightforward calendar-dates [__/__/__]" according to how
you would like for it to be said in order for it to meet your expectations (for it to be true); Instead, He has the Matthew 13:24,30,39,40,49-50 event (when the angels will "REAP") to be in the EXACT OPPOSITE SEQUENCE as that of "our Rapture" event (for it is at a distinct time-slot), for HIS purposes (to the end that is shown in vv.10-12, above). Make sense??
It
can be clear TO US (His Spirit-indwelt believers),
if we aren't insistent that that one particular word CANNOT mean THAT, and that that other phrase is defined like the "made up definition" says it means (instead of how SCRIPTURE ITSELF defines it), and we don't
blur two distinct items together into
one item (verses 1 and 2), and don't inject certain other things, and so forth...
I've mentioned in past posts... the Olivet Discourse makes use of a "consistent 'you'," and the
"proleptic 'you'" meaning (basically), "
all those in the future OF THE SAME CATEGORY"
... and those He was speaking to in [up to, and INCLUDING] the Olivet Discourse were "
those to whom the promised and prophesied
EARTHLY Millennial Kingdom
WAS PROMISED" (and that was,
TO ISRAEL... and the "GUESTS" whom THEY will "INVITE" [i.e. the Gentiles/nations who will be existing in the trib yrs
with them (FOLLOWING "our Rapture"/"THE Departure")--Let's not usurp Israel of THEIR role, and THEIR rewards, and the place God has FOR THEM,
at that [specific, future, limited] time-period, which is AFTER "our Rapture"/"THE Departure"]). It's not "all about us".
[I'll try to go find that other post I'm talking about, that speaks of His "VENGEANCE" (its timing)]