Why I believe the Great Tribulation started in 70 A.D.

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GaryA

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Aug 10, 2019
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#2
That's funny --- I created this thread somehow without even realizing it...
 

GaryA

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#3
explanatory

(That's par for the course - posted it before I fixed the typo.)
 
Jul 31, 2019
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#4
Doesn't "great tribulation" start when man of sin(antichrist)sits in temple of God(not in existence since 70ad=but may come soon in jerusalem),he claims to be God,and does miracles to prove his claim?(matthew24,2ndthessalonians2,daniel7,revelation13),I don't think Daniel's70th week has started yet,but it could come soon(daniel9),the final 42 months(1290days)starts at that point=public unveiling to world of antichrist
 

maxwel

Senior Member
Apr 18, 2013
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#5
I think the great tribulation started when I met my last girlfriend.

But... I don't really have any scripture to support that.
 

Subhumanoidal

Well-known member
Sep 17, 2018
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#6
Topics been covered here plenty. Most regulars know it already and don't need a lengthy explanation. They heard it before and disagree.
If this is the 1000 year reign right now then the bible is a lie.
 

Noose

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Apr 18, 2016
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#7
Nov 23, 2013
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#8
@GaryA

Are you gonna post anything? I’m looking forward to seeing what you have to say. :)
 

Melach

Well-known member
Mar 28, 2019
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#9
if it started in ad 70 why has it lasted this long and when was 2 thessalonians 2:8 fulfilled? shouldnt Jesus have returned already?
 

GaryA

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#10
@GaryA

Are you gonna post anything? I’m looking forward to seeing what you have to say. :)
Please be patient...

The initial post was actually an accident; I am not even sure how it happened.

I have been "held up" by "real life" a bit.

Sorry that it is slow in forthcoming.
 

GaryA

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#12
I agree somehow but you need to show with calculations - how you came up with number 70.
It is not a matter of calculation (to conclude the year 70 A.D.) - it is a matter of event timing.

Perhaps I should have said "circa 70 A.D."...?
 

Noose

Senior Member
Apr 18, 2016
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#13
It is not a matter of calculation (to conclude the year 70 A.D.) - it is a matter of event timing.

Perhaps I should have said "circa 70 A.D."...?
You can actually calculate the date/time from Daniels time line but you can also get it from timing a particular verse in the bible.

I'm fully convinced that the very moment (minute) of writing this verse (below), is the moment antichrist took reign/ and the church era begun/ end times begun:

Rev 14:
13And I heard a voice from heaven telling me to write, “Blessed are the dead—those who die in the Lord from this moment on.

“Yes,” says the Spirit, “they will rest from their labors, for their deeds will follow them.”

Q. When do you think this verse was written? Around what period was Revelation written?
 

GaryA

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#14
In addition to not wanting to derail another thread, I started this one to allow me to be able to write my explanation in short posts instead of trying to do so with one very long post.

Writing long posts on my hand-held device can be very tedious.

Because of this, please do not bombard me with "tedious" questions --- unless, of course, you don't really care if I answer or how long it is before I answer.

So then - I will now attempt to write a series of small posts that should give an answer to the thread topic.

Please bear with me...
 

Dino246

Senior Member
Jun 30, 2015
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#15
While Gary is working on a longer explanation, I'll offer a few notes. Jesus stated that the temple would be destroyed, such that "not one stone will be left upon another". This was prophesied in the context of other last-days events, and took place in 70 AD, at the end of a period of horrid circumstances in Jerusalem.

Whether that period was the "great tribulation" is a matter of fact (either it was or it wasn't), but conscientious Christians disagree heartily on the matter. As with many subjects, this divides believers and is (unjustified) cause for insults, dismissal, and condemnation. While I hope this conversation can avoid such behaviour, I'm not holding my breath.
 

GaryA

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#16
The first thing I need to point you to is that these verses in the three accounts of the Olivet Discourse are talking about the same thing:

Matthew 24:15-22
Mark 13:14-20
Luke 21:20-24a

That is to say - they are 3 accounts of the same discourse from 3 different men. Luke did not witness Jesus say anything different than what the other two heard. Luke is talking about the very-same-exact-thing that Matthew and Mark are.

If you do not understand this and believe it -- then, you need to stare at it - and study it - until you do.
 

stonesoffire

Poetic Member
Nov 24, 2013
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#17
One could say that great tribulation started for the nation of Israel then, but actually it was the dispersion that happened for them that was prophesied to happen.

Funny how the church seems to block out Israel as if it would never rise again. But it’s here! So wherever in the time period that Israel rises again? That’s where we are. The last of the last days, when the fulfillment of the Gentiles is completed. And the world turns attention to Jerusalem.

I don’t know much about the happenings now but I do know this.
 

GaryA

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#18
As with many subjects, this divides believers and is (unjustified) cause for insults, dismissal, and condemnation. While I hope this conversation can avoid such behaviour, I'm not holding my breath.
That will depend on whether people would rather argue or learn.

And, I don't mean "learn from me"; rather, "learn from the scriptures"...

I am only trying to help people "escape from the MATRIX of lies" (as it were) that they have been brainwashed in/with all their life.

People must see it for themselves in the scriptures to correct the error of their "training"...
 

GaryA

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#19
The first thing I need to point you to is that these verses in the three accounts of the Olivet Discourse are talking about the same thing:

Matthew 24:15-22
Mark 13:14-20
Luke 21:20-24a

That is to say - they are 3 accounts of the same discourse from 3 different men. Luke did not witness Jesus say anything different than what the other two heard. Luke is talking about the very-same-exact-thing that Matthew and Mark are.

If you do not understand this and believe it -- then, you need to stare at it - and study it - until you do.
In other words, the passage in Luke is not referring to past events while the other two are referring to future events.

All 3 passages are referring to the same events in the same time frame.

Only, Matthew and Mark "encode" the [same] information that Luke simply says in a rather blunt and very straight-forward way.
 

GaryA

Truth, Honesty, Love, Courage
Aug 10, 2019
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#20
Why do you think these [words] were written?

in Matthew account:

( whoso readeth, let him understand: )

in Mark account:

( let him that readeth understand, )