Scriptures plainly teach that Husband shall rule over the wife.
Gen_3:16 Unto the woman he said, I will greatly multiply thy sorrow and thy conception; in sorrow thou shalt bring forth children; and thy desire shall be to thy husband, and he (HUSBAND) shall rule over thee (WIFE).
I read this passage as a foretelling, not a command. It simply doesn't make sense to me as a command. Again, why would God, Who is good and wise, assign sinful males to "rule over" females? Does it not make more sense that God was foretelling what simply "would" happen, not what "should" happen?
And Scriptures plainly reveals that it is important who was formed first, consider:
1Ti 2:12 But I suffer not a woman to teach, nor to usurp authority over the man, but to be in silence. For Adam was first formed, then Eve. (God seems to think it pretty important to mention it in His Word) And Adam was not deceived, but the woman being deceived was in the transgression.
Yes, and this passage makes great sense if Paul is refuting a proto-Gnostic heresy. It is awkward otherwise.
... Eph 5:22 Wives, submit yourselves unto your own husbands, as unto the Lord. For the husband is the head of the wife, even as Christ is the head of the church: and he is the saviour of the body. Therefore as the church is subject unto Christ, so let the wives be to their own husbands in EVERY THING.
Can you explain what the bolded words mean in the next Holy Inspired by God verse?
Tit 2:5 To be discreet, chaste, keepers at home, good, OBEDIENT to their own husbands, that the word of God be not blasphemed.
Doesn't Obedient mean to OBEY? Aren't the aged women, according to God (the Word), suppose to be teaching the wives to be OBEDIENT to their own husbands? Not in America for sure. Get stoned if you do, in a country where the women have become men, and the men have become obedient to their wives.
Taking one English translation of a word which is translated in several different ways and arguing that it means what you want it to mean is disingenuous. "Subject" and "submit" are far more common selections for the word translated "obedient" above.
... That is deference.
Actually, what you described is called deflecting, and I don't accept your accusation.
You teach it is not hierarchy, Scriptures plainly teaches it is. Husband is to Rule over the wife. Wife is to obey her husband. woman was made for the man. Husband is the Head of the wife. Hierarchy for sure. Jesus is over the Church, yes? Is it not instructed of wives to submit to their husband even as the Church to Jesus? Hierarchy.
You're welcome to see it that way. I don't. Because of the way you and I differ on the interpretation of Genesis 3:16, we likely won't agree on the rest of the passages. I see the hierarchy (among humans) as a direct result of the fall, not the intention of God. Ephesians 5:21 teaches mutual submission; if the husband "rules over" his wife, he is not practicing mutual submission, and it is far more likely that he will become a tyrant than a godly husband if he follows the "rule over" interpretation.
Where is that written anywhere in all of Scriptures Old or New, that interpretation of Scriptures belong to humans? Sure we are to try to understand what Scriptures is trying to teach us or tell us, and sure we are to study Scriptures, knowing what is where, and what is written and what is not written. But when someone interprets the Scriptures to fit into their own false doctrines this is not of God.
Where does it say that the interpretation of Scripture doesn't belong to us? Interpretation includes taking the symbols on the page, assigning meaning to them based on known patterns, and assigning meaning to the collection of patterns. You can't get away from interpretation; you do it every time you read the Scripture. The point Peter was making is that only God can rightly interpret prophecy... he wasn't talking about Scripture in general. As to your last sentence above, I agree.