Done Away?

[newbirth]

Yes, if there were no law then there would be no transgression.

Heb 10:9 "Then said he, Lo, I come to do thy will, O God. He taketh away the first, that he may establish the second."

Christ did not end the OT law and did nothing more, but Christ ended the OT law and establish a second law, His NT law that men are under today and transgress by not keeping that NT law.

Note how Heb 10:9 says Christ taketh away the first that he MAY establish the second. Both laws CANNOT co-exist side by side for they are two different, non-compatible laws with one based on the blood of bulls and goats and the other on the blood of Christ.

Christ is the end of the law for righteousness to them that believe....not to everyone...for those who believe he takes away the first to establish the second...unbelievers are not under the law of Christ....unbelievers are condemn under the OT law....God concluded all under sin...

why can they not...co-exist Paul thinks they can...
Romans 7:25King James Version (KJV)
[SUP]25 [/SUP]I thank God through Jesus Christ our Lord. So then with the mind I myself serve the law of God; but with the flesh the law of sin.




Romans 8:4King James Version (KJV)
[SUP]4 [/SUP]That the righteousness of the law might be fulfilled in us, who walk not after the flesh, but after the Spirit.

 

[newbirth]

IN Rom 3 when Paul concluded all under sin he was talking about the two groups, Jew and Gentile that lived under the OT law. Under those OT laws there was no blood of Christ, under those OT laws man could not be justified and at the end of Rom 3 Paul gives the remedy to those Jews and Gentiles, that remedy being justification through Christ. Those Jews and Gentiles that obeyed from the heart (becoming Christians) are then freed from sin Rom 6:17,18, ie, no longer under sin that the OT law keep men under not being able to be justified under those OT laws.

Rom 8:1 there is no condemnation to them that are conditionally 'in Christ". Those Christians in Christ are under law, as Paul said he was under law to Christ, 1 Cor 9:21 and as long as the Christian keeps Christ's NT law he remains in Christ, no condemnation.

So I scratch my head at those that want to keep the OT law going and active when it did not justify but only brought God's wrath upon man, Rom 4:15.

what law is the unbeliever under??? is he under the NT law of Christ???.....if Christ removed the law...how can we sin...

Romans 4:15King James Version (KJV)
[SUP]15 [/SUP]Because the law worketh wrath: for where no law is, there is no transgression.

if the law was done away with ...why do we need to abide in Christ....seeing there is no law to condemn us and why are men called sinners...seeing there is no law to identify sin...

 

[JGIG]

what law is the unbeliever under??? is he under the NT law of Christ???.....if Christ removed the law...how can we sin...

Romans 4:15King James Version (KJV)
[SUP]15 [/SUP]Because the law worketh wrath: for where no law is, there is no transgression.

if the law was done away with ...why do we need to abide in Christ....seeing there is no law to condemn us and why are men called sinners...seeing there is no law to identify sin...

13 To be sure, sin was in the world before the law was given, but sin is not charged against anyone’s account where there is no law. (from Rom. 5)​

There was no law to identify sin before Sinai, yet sin was in the world according the Scriptures.

People sin under Grace; people sin under Law.

In Christ, under Grace, there is redemption.

Under Law, after the Cross, ONLY condemnation.

Our choice.

-JGIG

 

[gotime]

Don't get disheartened by responses because some do actually read and think about it.

I find that the majority of responses against the law only work in places like this. In a live face to face situation many things that are said hear appear as foolish as they truly are.

When the Person has to actually listen and then replies and so on they find themselves in a very bad place. And because of that I can tell that many here have never really used what they think in biblical in a real situation where someone upholds the law according to the scriptures.

Many people here put down the law not realising that they are putting down the law giver even Jesus Christ.

In the end they are only really against one commandment namely the 4th. The only Commandment that contains the very essence of the Gospel.

 

[Jabberjaw]

what law is the unbeliever under??? is he under the NT law of Christ???.....if Christ removed the law...how can we sin...

Romans 4:15King James Version (KJV)
[SUP]15 [/SUP]Because the law worketh wrath: for where no law is, there is no transgression.

if the law was done away with ...why do we need to abide in Christ....seeing there is no law to condemn us and why are men called sinners...seeing there is no law to identify sin...

1 Corinthians 9:21 (KJV) To them that are without law, as without law, (being not without law to God, but under the law to Christ,) that I might gain them that are without law.

 

[newbirth]

13 To be sure, sin was in the world before the law was given, but sin is not charged against anyone’s account where there is no law. (from Rom. 5)​

There was no law to identify sin before Sinai, yet sin was in the world according the Scriptures.

People sin under Grace; people sin under Law.

In Christ, under Grace, there is redemption.

Under Law, after the Cross, ONLY condemnation.

Our choice.

-JGIG

then we agree death because of sin reigned before the law of Sinai....so the law does not make sin, it identifies sin...People do not sin in Christ...they sin when they are drawn away from Christ..and this is where a lot of people have problems ...The Spirit of Christ is in our Minds...and our Thoughts...and our Hearts....if these be perfect...then our action will be also....but if our thoughts be evil then we are not led by the spirit and our action show by evil deeds.....that is why scripture says ...a man is tempted when he is drawn away....when our mind is drawn away...it is from Christ it is drawn away....and we therefore are not in him...
James 1:13-15King James Version (KJV)
[SUP]13 [/SUP]Let no man say when he is tempted, I am tempted of God: for God cannot be tempted with evil, neither tempteth he any man:
[SUP]14 [/SUP]But every man is tempted, when he is drawn away of his own lust, and enticed.

[SUP]15 [/SUP]Then when lust hath conceived, it bringeth forth sin: and sin, when it is finished, bringeth forth death.

Hebrews 10:16
This is the covenant that I will make with them after those days, saith the Lord, I will put my laws into their hearts, and in their minds will I write them;

 

[john832]

Christ is the end of the law for righteousness to them that believe....not to everyone...for those who believe he takes away the first to establish the second.

I keep doing this, but apparently no one reads it...

Romans 10:4 says no such thing. Here is what it says...

Rom 10:4 For Christ is the end of the law for righteousness to every one that believeth.

The word for "end" here is...

G5056
τέλος
telos
tel'-os
From a primary word τέλλω tellō (to set out for a definite point or goal); properly the point aimed at as a limit, that is, (by implication) the conclusion of an act or state (termination [literally, figuratively or indefinitely], result [immediate, ultimate or prophetic], purpose); specifically an impost or levy (as paid): - + continual, custom, end (-ing), finally, uttermost. Compare G5411.

It means outcome or point aimed at. This word, G5056 τέλος, is used other places in the N.T., let's look at them...

1Pe 1:9 Receiving the end of your faith, even the salvation of your souls.

Yep, G5056 τέλος is the word used here for end. So, is your faith obliterated? Done away with? Brought to an end? or is it brought to an outcome of salvation?

Jas 5:11 Behold, we count them happy which endure. Ye have heard of the patience of Job, and have seen the end of the Lord; that the Lord is very pitiful, and of tender mercy.

Same word, G5056 τέλος, for end here. Is this the obliteration of the Lord? The doing away with Him? The use of the word is determined by context. Let's see how a few other translations render it...

New International Version:
Christ is the culmination of the law so that there may be righteousness for everyone who believes.

International Standard Version:
For the Messiah is the culmination of the Law as far as righteousness is concerned for everyone who believes

Aramaic Bible in Plain English:
For The Messiah is the consummation of The Written Law for righteousness to everyone who believes.

The sense of it is the end result, not the obliteration.

That does not say that we are free to violate the letter of the law but that we are not under the condemnation of the law to obey it.(Rom 6:14,15).

The implication is that we justified by disobeying the Law. Care to show me a scripture for that? Here is one to chew on...

Rom 2:13 (for not the hearers of the law are just in the sight of God, but the doers of the law will be justified;

I wish I had a nickel for every time someone has misused Rom 10:4

 

[john832]

what law is the unbeliever under??? is he under the NT law of Christ???.....if Christ removed the law...how can we sin...

So He did exactly the opposite of what He said?

Mat 5:17 Think not that I am come to destroy the law, or the prophets: I am not come to destroy, but to fulfil.
Mat 5:18 For verily I say unto you, Till heaven and earth pass, one jot or one tittle shall in no wise pass from the law, till all be fulfilled.
Mat 5:19 Whosoever therefore shall break one of these least commandments, and shall teach men so, he shall be called the least in the kingdom of heaven: but whosoever shall do and teach them, the same shall be called great in the kingdom of heaven.

Luk 16:17 And it is easier for heaven and earth to pass, than one tittle of the law to fail.

Mat 19:17 And he said unto him, Why callest thou me good? there is none good but one, that is, God: but if thou wilt enter into life, keep the commandments.

Which ones? Asked and answered...

Mat 19:18 He saith unto him, Which? Jesus said, Thou shalt do no murder, Thou shalt not commit adultery, Thou shalt not steal, Thou shalt not bear false witness,
Mat 19:19 Honour thy father and thy mother: and, Thou shalt love thy neighbour as thyself.

The Ten Commandments...

Rom 13:9 For this, Thou shalt not commit adultery, Thou shalt not kill, Thou shalt not steal, Thou shalt not bear false witness, Thou shalt not covet; and if there be any other commandment, it is briefly comprehended in this saying, namely, Thou shalt love thy neighbour as thyself.
Rom 13:10 Love worketh no ill to his neighbour: therefore love is the fulfilling of the law.

To fulfill the Law is to practice love. What is love...

1Jn 5:2 By this we know that we love the children of God, when we love God, and keep his commandments.
1Jn 5:3 For this is the love of God, that we keep his commandments: and his commandments are not grievous.

2Jn 1:6 And this is love, that we walk after his commandments. This is the commandment, That, as ye have heard from the beginning, ye should walk in it.

 

[newbirth]

1 Corinthians 9:21 (KJV) To them that are without law, as without law, (being not without law to God, but under the law to Christ,) that I might gain them that are without law.

I do hope you understand that this means all are under law to God...and without law is referring to the mosaic law...since God has concluded all under sin...

 

[newbirth]

So He did exactly the opposite of what He said?

Mat 5:17 Think not that I am come to destroy the law, or the prophets: I am not come to destroy, but to fulfil.
Mat 5:18 For verily I say unto you, Till heaven and earth pass, one jot or one tittle shall in no wise pass from the law, till all be fulfilled.
Mat 5:19 Whosoever therefore shall break one of these least commandments, and shall teach men so, he shall be called the least in the kingdom of heaven: but whosoever shall do and teach them, the same shall be called great in the kingdom of heaven.

Luk 16:17 And it is easier for heaven and earth to pass, than one tittle of the law to fail.

Mat 19:17 And he said unto him, Why callest thou me good? there is none good but one, that is, God: but if thou wilt enter into life, keep the commandments.

Which ones? Asked and answered...

Mat 19:18 He saith unto him, Which? Jesus said, Thou shalt do no murder, Thou shalt not commit adultery, Thou shalt not steal, Thou shalt not bear false witness,
Mat 19:19 Honour thy father and thy mother: and, Thou shalt love thy neighbour as thyself.

The Ten Commandments...

Rom 13:9 For this, Thou shalt not commit adultery, Thou shalt not kill, Thou shalt not steal, Thou shalt not bear false witness, Thou shalt not covet; and if there be any other commandment, it is briefly comprehended in this saying, namely, Thou shalt love thy neighbour as thyself.
Rom 13:10 Love worketh no ill to his neighbour: therefore love is the fulfilling of the law.

To fulfill the Law is to practice love. What is love...

1Jn 5:2 By this we know that we love the children of God, when we love God, and keep his commandments.
1Jn 5:3 For this is the love of God, that we keep his commandments: and his commandments are not grievous.

2Jn 1:6 And this is love, that we walk after his commandments. This is the commandment, That, as ye have heard from the beginning, ye should walk in it.

I am not sure what you are implying..He said he did not come to destroy the law...therefore he did not destroy the law...
Mat 5:17 Think not that I am come to destroy the law, or the prophets: I am not come to destroy, but to fulfil.

 

[john832]

13 To be sure, sin was in the world before the law was given, but sin is not charged against anyone’s account where there is no law. (from Rom. 5)​

There was no law to identify sin before Sinai, yet sin was in the world according the Scriptures.

That is incorrect. The scripture says that there cannot be sin without Law.

Rom 4:15 Because the law worketh wrath: for where no law is, there is no transgression.

Rom 5:13 (For until the law sin was in the world: but sin is not imputed when there is no law.

There is no sin without Law and yet we read...

Rom 5:14 Nevertheless death reigned from Adam to Moses, even over them that had not sinned after the similitude of Adam's transgression, who is the figure of him that was to come.

so Adam transgressed. According to Rom 4:15, if there is no Law, there is no transgression.

People sin under Grace; people sin under Law.

In Christ, under Grace, there is redemption.

Under Law, after the Cross, ONLY condemnation.

Our choice.

-JGIG

You have scripture for this?

 

[john832]

Don't get disheartened by responses because some do actually read and think about it.

I find that the majority of responses against the law only work in places like this. In a live face to face situation many things that are said hear appear as foolish as they truly are.

When the Person has to actually listen and then replies and so on they find themselves in a very bad place. And because of that I can tell that many here have never really used what they think in biblical in a real situation where someone upholds the law according to the scriptures.

Many people here put down the law not realising that they are putting down the law giver even Jesus Christ.

In the end they are only really against one commandment namely the 4th. The only Commandment that contains the very essence of the Gospel.

You never see a thread about no Law against murder, do you?

 

[newbirth]

I keep doing this, but apparently no one reads it...

Romans 10:4 says no such thing. Here is what it says...

Rom 10:4 For Christ is the end of the law for righteousness to every one that believeth.

The word for "end" here is...

G5056
τέλος
telos
tel'-os
From a primary word τέλλω tellō (to set out for a definite point or goal); properly the point aimed at as a limit, that is, (by implication) the conclusion of an act or state (termination [literally, figuratively or indefinitely], result [immediate, ultimate or prophetic], purpose); specifically an impost or levy (as paid): - + continual, custom, end (-ing), finally, uttermost. Compare G5411.

It means outcome or point aimed at. This word, G5056 τέλος, is used other places in the N.T., let's look at them...

1Pe 1:9 Receiving the end of your faith, even the salvation of your souls.

Yep, G5056 τέλος is the word used here for end. So, is your faith obliterated? Done away with? Brought to an end? or is it brought to an outcome of salvation?

Jas 5:11 Behold, we count them happy which endure. Ye have heard of the patience of Job, and have seen the end of the Lord; that the Lord is very pitiful, and of tender mercy.

Same word, G5056 τέλος, for end here. Is this the obliteration of the Lord? The doing away with Him? The use of the word is determined by context. Let's see how a few other translations render it...

New International Version:
Christ is the culmination of the law so that there may be righteousness for everyone who believes.

International Standard Version:
For the Messiah is the culmination of the Law as far as righteousness is concerned for everyone who believes

Aramaic Bible in Plain English:
For The Messiah is the consummation of The Written Law for righteousness to everyone who believes.

The sense of it is the end result, not the obliteration.



The implication is that we justified by disobeying the Law. Care to show me a scripture for that? Here is one to chew on...

Rom 2:13 (for not the hearers of the law are just in the sight of God, but the doers of the law will be justified;

I wish I had a nickel for every time someone has misused Rom 10:4

I never said what you are implying...the end of the law for righteousness means the end of the law for righteousness... to everyone who believe means... to everyone who believes....not to those who don't believe....

For Christ is the end of the law for righteousness to every one that believeth. because he who believes is become dead in Christ....and the law has no power over the dead..

The implication is that we justified by disobeying the Law.

you make that implication...in Christ one is apart from the Mosaic law which was not destroyed as some think...but they are under Christ's law which is the new way ...led by the spirit..the spirit leads us to all truth and righteousness contained in the law...except the the sacrifices which Christ took care of....anyone not under the law of Christ is condemn by the law of Moses...

 

[john832]

I never said what you are implying...the end of the law for righteousness means the end of the law for righteousness... to everyone who believe means... to everyone who believes....not to those who don't believe....

For Christ is the end of the law for righteousness to every one that believeth. because he who believes is become dead in Christ....and the law has no power over the dead..

you make that implication...in Christ one is apart from the Mosaic law which was not destroyed as some think...but they are under Christ's law which is the new way ...led by the spirit..the spirit leads us to all truth and righteousness contained in the law...except the the sacrifices which Christ took care of....anyone not under the law of Christ is condemn by the law of Moses...

The issue is the meaning of the word "end". It does not mean cease to exist, it means the outcome, the point of aim, the result.

 

[newbirth]

That is incorrect. The scripture says that there cannot be sin without Law.

Rom 4:15 Because the law worketh wrath: for where no law is, there is no transgression.

Rom 5:13 (For until the law sin was in the world: but sin is not imputed when there is no law.

There is no sin without Law and yet we read...

Rom 5:14 Nevertheless death reigned from Adam to Moses, even over them that had not sinned after the similitude of Adam's transgression, who is the figure of him that was to come.

so Adam transgressed. According to Rom 4:15, if there is no Law, there is no transgression.

you misunderstand the scripture...sin was there but there was no standard to identify it...Adam had one law ...do not eat of that tree...as a result of breaking that law sin entered the world...not by choice but by nature...we all became sinners...the law came so we can identify why we are sinners and what is the remedy...Christ came that we might be partakers of the divine nature by dying to the natural Adamic nature...

 

[john832]

you misunderstand the scripture...sin was there but there was no standard to identify it...Adam had one law ...do not eat of that tree...as a result of breaking that law sin entered the world...not by choice but by nature...we all became sinners...the law came so we can identify why we are sinners and what is the remedy...Christ came that we might be partakers of the divine nature by dying to the natural Adamic nature...

No, I don't think that I misunderstand the scripture...

The Diaglott has...

Rom 4:15 the for law wrath works out; where for not is law, neither transgression.

Rom 5:13 Till for law sin was in world; sin but not is counted not being law.

Concerning Rom 4:15

JFB commentary...

for where there is no law, there is no transgression — It is just the law that makes transgression, in the case of those who break it; nor can the one exist without the other.

Barclay's...

(ii) There is transgression. Whenever law is introduced, transgression follows. No one can break a law which does not exist; and no one can be condemned for breaking a law of whose existence he was ignorant. If we introduce law and stop there, if we make religion solely a matter of obeying law, life consists of one long series of transgressions waiting to be punished.

(iii) There is wrath. Think of law, think of transgression, and inevitably the next thought is wrath. Think of God in terms of law and you cannot do other than think of him in terms of outraged justice. Think of man in terms of law and you cannot do other than think of him as destined for the condemnation of God.

Albert Barnes...

For where no law is ... - This is a general principle; a maxim of common justice and of common sense. Law is a rule of conduct. If no such rule is given and known, there can be no crime. Law expresses what may be done, and what may not be done. If there is no command to pursue a certain course, no injunction to forbid certain conduct, actions will be innocent. The connection in which this declaration is made here, seems to imply that as the Jews had a multitude of clear laws, and as the Gentiles had the laws of nature, there could be no hope of escape from the charge of their violation. Since human nature was depraved, and people were prone to sin, the more just and reasonable the laws, the less hope was there of being justified by the Law, and the more certainty was there that the Law would produce wrath and condemnation.

Rom 5:13...

Albert Barnes...

But sin is not imputed - Is not charged against people, or they are not held guilty of it where there is no law. This is a self-evident proposition, for sin is a violation of law; and if there is no law, there can be no wrong. Assuming this as a self-evident proposition, the connection is, that there must have been a law of some kind; a “law written on their hearts,” since sin was in the world, and people could not be charged with sin, or treated as sinners, unless there was some law. The passage here states a great and important principle, that people will not be held to be guilty unless there is a law which binds them of which they are apprized, and which they voluntarily transgress; see the note at Rom_4:15. This verse, therefore, meets an objection that might be started from what had been said in Rom_4:15. The apostle had affirmed that “where no law is there is no transgression.” He here stated that all were sinners. It might be objected, that as during this long period of time they had no law, they could not be stoners. To meet this, he says that people were then in fact sinners, and were treated as such, which showed that there must have been a law.

There was Law prior to Moses...

Gen 26:5 Because that Abraham obeyed my voice, and kept my charge, my commandments, my statutes, and my laws.

Now God says that the Law Abraham obeyed was His Law.

Exo 16:4 Then said the LORD unto Moses, Behold, I will rain bread from heaven for you; and the people shall go out and gather a certain rate every day, that I may prove them, whether they will walk in my law, or no.

He gave that Law to Israel. he restated it to a nation that had been cut off from Him and in slavery. They did not know the Law and had to have it restated.

How many different versions of the Law does God have? If more than one, which one is in force today? V2.7? Maybe 5.4?

Or does He just change it every once in a while for fun"

 

[Jabberjaw]

I do hope you understand that this means all are under law to God...and without law is referring to the mosaic law...since God has concluded all under sin...

Romans 8:2 (KJV)
2 For the law of the Spirit of life in Christ Jesus hath made me free from the law of sin and death.

 

[Hizikyah]

Romans 8:2 (KJV)
2 For the law of the Spirit of life in Christ Jesus hath made me free from the law of sin and death.

Free from righteous acts? or free from evil acts?

The law of sin and death is not, "do not steal" "do not kill" "love your neighbor" "do not take the Name of YHWH in vain", the law of sin and death is what you see on a television daily...

Ok, so Romans 7:

7 What? Can anyone therefore say that the Law is sin? No! By no means! But to the contrary, I did not know sin; transgression of the Law, except through the Law, for I did not know lust, unless the Law had said: Do not covet.

12 Therefore the Law is holy, and the commandments are holy, and just, and righteous.

Obedience to Leviticus 19:18, "Do not seek revenge nor bear a grudge against one of your own people; but you shall love your neighbor as yourself. I am Yahweh." is holy.

13 Did that which is righteous, then, become death to me? By no means! But in order that sin might be recognized as sin, it produced death in me through that which was righteous, so that through the commandments, sin might become utterly sinful.

"sin might become utterly sinful" breaking "do not steal" is sin and death

14 For we know that the Law is spiritual; but I was carnal, sold into the power of sin.

the Law is spiritual;
Do not hold back the wages of a hired man overnight. Do not curse the deaf or put a stumblingblock in front of the blind; but reverence your Father. I am Yahweh. Do not pervert judgment: You shall not show partiality to the poor, nor honor to the person of the great.

Breaking "You shall not show partiality to the poor, nor honor to the person of the great." is carnal


16 And if I did what I did not want to do, I agreed that the Law is righteous.

17 As it was, it was no longer I myself who did it, but it was sin living in me.

22 For I delight in the Law of Yahweh according to the inward man;

23 But I saw another law at work in the members of my body, waging war against the Law in my mind, and bringing me into captivity of the law of sin, which is in my members.

25 Thanks be to Yahweh, I have deliverance through Yahshua Messiah our King! So then, with this same mind, I myself serve the Law of Yahweh, while in the flesh that is yet subject to the law of sin.

"I have deliverance"

deliverance from "do not steal" or deliverance from breaking "do not steal"

Romans 8:

2 Because through Yahshua Messiah, the Law of the Spirit has set me free from the law of sin and death.

(Romans 7:14 For we know that the Law is spiritual; but I was carnal, sold into the power of sin.)


3 For what the Law was powerless to do, in that men sought to defeat; overthrow, fit, Yahweh did by sending His own Son in the likeness of sinful man, to bear witness against sin. And so He condemned the sins of all mankind."

Is sin "do not steal?"

or is sin breaking "do not steal?"

(Romans 7:14 For we know that the Law is spiritual

Romans 8:5-8, "For those who live according to the flesh, set their minds on the things of the flesh; but those who live according to the Spirit, set their minds on the things of the Spirit. For to be carnally minded is death; but to be spiritually minded is life and peace. Because the carnal mind is enmity against; (bitterly opposed to), Yahweh; for it his not subject to the Law of Yahweh, nor indeed can be. So then, those who are of the flesh cannot please Yahweh."

What is the flesh opposed to?

Following Yahweh's Law?

Rejecting Yahweh's Law?

carnal mind is enmity against
for it his not subject to the Law of Yahweh


2 Kepha 3:15-16, "...Shaul, in accordance with the wisdom given to him, has written to you, As also in all his letters, speaking in them about these things, in which are some things hard to be understood, which those who are unlearned and unstable twist, as they also do the other Scriptures, to their own destruction."

Psalm 19:7-10, "The Laws of Yahweh are perfect, converting the whole person. The testimony of Yahweh is sure, making the simple ones wise. The statutes of Yahweh are right, rejoicing the heart; mind. The commandments of Yahweh are pure, bringing understanding to the eyes. The reverence of Yahweh is clean, enduring forever. The judgments of Yahweh are true and altogether righteous. They are more to be desired than gold, yes, than even much fine gold. They are sweeter than honey and the honeycomb."

 

[john832]

Romans 8:2 (KJV)
2 For the law of the Spirit of life in Christ Jesus hath made me free from the law of sin and death.

The Law of sin and death. The Law of sin and death is the result of transgressing the Law of God...

Rom 6:23 For the wages of sin is death, but the gift of God is eternal life in Christ Jesus our Lord.

Paul makes a distinction between the Law of sin and death and the Law of God...

Rom 7:25 I thank God through Jesus Christ our Lord. So then with the mind I myself serve the law of God; but with the flesh the law of sin.

 

[gb9]

Titus 3 v 9 any of ya'll ever read that???