OK, if I understand you correctly, you are saying because there are instances where the word "punish" is used twice indicating the same event, this means that the punishment of Matthew 25 follows the same pattern?
and I've shown why this has no adverse impact on my viewpoint (that the MK age FOLLOWS that point in time) for the reasons I've provided...
that BOTH Rev19:19,21/16:14-16/20:5 [then 20:11-15] *AND* Isaiah 24:21-22a/22b have/SHOW "a TIME PERIOD" which SEPARATES two distinct "PUNISH" words/events...and AGREES with the chronology/timing-issues elsewhere [and which the "amill-teachings" completely disregards]
If so, then I'd ask what coherent hermeneutic suggests this?
I'd ask you, "what coherent hermeneutic" DISREGARDS "chronology/sequence/timing-issues"? (none should!)