Are women allowed to Preach?

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Dino246

Dino246

Senior Member
#701
Jun 30, 2015
24,855
13,461
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#701
loyaldisciple said:
Mark 16:15 And he said unto them, Go ye into all the world, and preach the gospel to every creature.

When God commanded this, it was not any command to spread falsity nor abuse ... It was a command to spread truth ...After hearing that truth, one proves whether they are a believer or not by what they then continue to spread themselves ... Do they also spread the true word or do they spread their own earthly opinions ? ...
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Welcome, by the way. I hadn't said that yet. :)

Does unpacking scripture, discussing context, examining original languages and commentaries, and exploring possible implications count as spreading "their own earthly opinions"?

Or are preachers and teachers only to read the Bible verbatim?

If the latter, why does God call only some to teach when all (well, most) can read?

Should we distinguish your "earthly opinions" from Scripture, and ignore what you write? Bear in mind that I'm not seeking to attack you; I'm merely exploring the implications of your statements.
 
Dino246

Dino246

Senior Member
#702
Jun 30, 2015
24,855
13,461
113
#702
loyaldisciple said:
Thank you sir or madam. I figured that out a few minutes ago. Often, especially when including verses, it is in response to all so I likely will not use the button ...
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The nicknames of male contributors appear in blue at the upper left of a post; those of females appear in pink. :)
 
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Stunnedbygrace

Senior Member
#703
Nov 12, 2015
9,112
822
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#703
loyaldisciple said:
Thank you sir or madam. I figured that out a few minutes ago. Often, especially when including verses, it is in response to all so I likely will not use the button ...
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A sirs name is in blue. A madams name is in pink. :)
Welcome to the forums loyal. :)
 
L

loyaldisciple

Guest
#709
#709
Dino246 said:
Welcome, by the way. I hadn't said that yet. :)

Does unpacking scripture, discussing context, examining original languages and commentaries, and exploring possible implications count as spreading "their own earthly opinions"?

Or are preachers and teachers only to read the Bible verbatim?

If the latter, why does God call only some to teach when all (well, most) can read?

Should we distinguish your "earthly opinions" from Scripture, and ignore what you write? Bear in mind that I'm not seeking to attack you; I'm merely exploring the implications of your statements.
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If by unpacking and discussing scripture, the clear meaning of the scripture is changed in any way shape or form then yes that is spreading an earthly opinion. The Bible is the strict letter of the law to Christians and they should strive their very best to follow it exactly as written. God only calls upon the most true to Him to be teachers. He does not call those with even a small amount of doubt to teach. It is fine for everyone to disregard any of my own words. However, when I include scripture and the word of God, which I have done several times already, it is not a wise decision to disregard those words.
 
S

Stunnedbygrace

Senior Member
#710
Nov 12, 2015
9,112
822
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#710
loyaldisciple said:
If by unpacking and discussing scripture, the clear meaning of the scripture is changed in any way shape or form then yes that is spreading an earthly opinion. The Bible is the strict letter of the law to Christians and they should strive their very best to follow it exactly as written. God only calls upon the most true to Him to be teachers. He does not call those with even a small amount of doubt to teach. It is fine for everyone to disregard any of my own words. However, when I include scripture and the word of God, which I have done several times already, it is not a wise decision to disregard those words.
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The bible is the strict letter of the law...?
The letter kills. The Spirit gives life.
 
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loyaldisciple

Guest
#712
#712
Stunnedbygrace said:
The bible is the strict letter of the law...?
The letter kills. The Spirit gives life.
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Romans 8:2 [SUP]2[/SUP]because through Christ Jesus the law of the Spirit who gives life has set you free from the law of sin and death.

It is the LAW of the SPIRIT that sets one free.
 
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graceNpeace

Senior Member
#713
Aug 12, 2016
2,180
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#713
loyaldisciple said:
If by unpacking and discussing scripture, the clear meaning of the scripture is changed in any way shape or form then yes that is spreading an earthly opinion. The Bible is the strict letter of the law to Christians and they should strive their very best to follow it exactly as written. God only calls upon the most true to Him to be teachers. He does not call those with even a small amount of doubt to teach. It is fine for everyone to disregard any of my own words. However, when I include scripture and the word of God, which I have done several times already, it is not a wise decision to disregard those words.
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According to you, I have absolutely no choice but to accept this: "[FONT=&quot]“[/FONT]There is no God.”" Ps 14:1
This is a direct quote and according to your post I must accept that the bible teaches atheism, yes?

Actually, no!
Because there is a context to this statement, and here it is: "[FONT=&quot]The fool has said in his heart, [/FONT][FONT=&quot]“There is no God.”[/FONT]" Ps 14:1
This completely changes the meaning of the first quote....

Context is everything.
The fact that you quote Scriptural text, by itself, means diddly.
Each text has a context in the book of the Bible from which it originates as well as the ENTIRE Bible.

This forum is rife with posts where single verse quotes are used to claim all sorts of weird and wonderful interpretations when the real context of those quotes makes these claims impossible - sometimes the verse just before or just after the quote disproves the claim!

So, I would not take what you have just said at face value...
 
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Stunnedbygrace

Senior Member
#714
Nov 12, 2015
9,112
822
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#714
loyaldisciple said:
Romans 8:2 [SUP]2[/SUP]because through Christ Jesus the law of the Spirit who gives life has set you free from the law of sin and death.

It is the LAW of the SPIRIT that sets one free.
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This doesn't negate the fact that you said the bible is the strict letter of the law for Christians while 2 Cor 3:6 says the letter kills.

Define and compare and contrast the letter of the law versus the law of the Spirit.
 
L

loyaldisciple

Guest
#715
#715
graceNpeace said:
According to you, I have absolutely no choice but to accept this: "“There is no God.”" Ps 14:1
This is a direct quote and according to your post I must accept that the bible teaches atheism, yes?

Actually, no!
Because there is a context to this statement, and here it is: "The fool has said in his heart, “There is no God.”" Ps 14:1
This completely changes the meaning of the first quote....

Context is everything.
The fact that you quote Scriptural text, by itself, means diddly.
Each text has a context in the book of the Bible from which it originates as well as the ENTIRE Bible.

This forum is rife with posts where single verse quotes are used to claim all sorts of weird and wonderful interpretations when the real context of those quotes makes these claims impossible - sometimes the verse just before or just after the quote disproves the claim!

So, I would not take what you have just said at face value...
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Your excerpt was not offered in good faith, but rather deception and meant to be argumentative. It purposely left out meaningful context in order to be deceptive. That practice is known as adding or subtracting from the Bible, which is spoken about at the end of your Bible in Revelation. That is no comparison to the scriptures I have given, as there has been no purpose removal of any meaningful context surrounding those verses I have provided. Your example is therefore null and void as the two are not comparable.
 
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graceNpeace

Senior Member
#717
Aug 12, 2016
2,180
107
63
#717
loyaldisciple said:
Your excerpt was not offered in good faith, but rather deception and meant to be argumentative. It purposely left out meaningful context in order to be deceptive. That practice is known as adding or subtracting from the Bible, which is spoken about at the end of your Bible in Revelation. That is no comparison to the scriptures I have given, as there has been no purpose removal of any meaningful context surrounding those verses I have provided. Your example is therefore null and void as the two are not comparable.
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So, the penny has dropped then!

And, actually the comparison between the Scripture i quoted, and what you posted is exactly relevant! There is a bigger context and you are ignoring it....
 
L

loyaldisciple

Guest
#718
#718
Stunnedbygrace said:
This doesn't negate the fact that you said the bible is the strict letter of the law for Christians while 2 Cor 3:6 says the letter kills.

Define and compare and contrast the letter of the law versus the law of the Spirit.
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In this regard Romans 8:2 holds superiority in clarity over Corinthians 3:6, as Romans speaks the word "law" where Corinthians 3:6 only says "letter". It does not say "letter of the law". If you say that it does, then you have added to the scripture.

It is agreed that faith overpower law. However, one who has faith will also have respect for the law and the desire to follow it exactly as it is written. Follow law only and not be delivered for lack of faith is true. But who would follow all of God's law, if they had no faith ?. Compelling question is it not ?.
 
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Stunnedbygrace

Senior Member
#719
Nov 12, 2015
9,112
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#719
loyaldisciple said:
In this regard Romans 8:2 holds superiority in clarity over Corinthians 3:6, as Romans speaks the word "law" where Corinthians 3:6 only says "letter". It does not say "letter of the law". If you say that it does, then you have added to the scripture.

It is agreed that faith overpower law. However, one who has faith will also have respect for the law and the desire to follow it exactly as it is written. Follow law only and not be delivered for lack of faith is true. But who would follow all of God's law, if they had no faith ?. Compelling question is it not ?.
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Is this post really meant to be serious...?
Do you understand the difference between the letter of the law and the spirit of the law?
 
L

loyaldisciple

Guest
#720
#720
ROM 3:28 Therefore we conclude that a man is justified by faith without the deeds of the law.

Of course, this is true. But do you not understand that one could possibly follow law with no faith, yet one cannot have faith and completely disregard all law ?. Law can be had without faith, yet faith include both law and faith. This is why faith is more powerful. No one here I have seen to argue that point.
 
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