if the verse is so consistent with the bible then why is it not there in the first place. changing the Lords word does not create clarity, it causes confusion and destroys the credibility of those that added the passage.
A lot!
Did you know 'there is' is an insertion in 'there is one body, one faith, one baptism etc..' in Ephesians?
There are numerous others. At least in my KJV they are clear about what is inserted.
It is true sometimes and insertion can affect the meaning, but context irons out any issues with this.
So with the context of 'these three are one'.. it may be an insertion but is something that is just being repeated that has been throughout earlier passages.
The other thing is..
If you yourself don't agree with the trinity.. are calling Jesus, the Holy Spirit and the Father as actually seperate God's plural?
Are you saying Jesus is not God and neither is the Holy Spirit?
If it is either of these things.. there is nothing biblical about that!