M
I love how people approach some of these texts and Gentile it all up, not even thinking about the OT stuff the original readers would have thought of when Jesus made certain references..you know like 'coming on the clouds' *cough* Isaiah 19:1 *cough*
When we just jump in to this without regarding the original hearers frame of reference we can automatically think coming on clouds means jockeying on to a cloud and saddling it up for a good ride....
*cough* Isaiah 19:1*cough*
When we just jump in to this without regarding the original hearers frame of reference we can automatically think coming on clouds means jockeying on to a cloud and saddling it up for a good ride....
*cough* Isaiah 19:1*cough*
Originally Posted by IMINJC
cronjecj
First of all we know that the Lord didn't return in AD 70. Those who subscribe to this false doctrine explain some type of figurative return in heaven that happened in AD 70. We all know his return is not figurative.
ACTS 1:11
then there are those who misrepresent you. Jesus' coming in judgement on Jerusalem is not figurative. It is real history. So when they read "the sign of the son of man in heaven" they think ....the son of man in the sky coming towards the earth in the way an aeroplane comes in to land....whereas we think ...the sign ( note that it is a sign) ( that ) the son of man is in heaven as in Ps 110 and Dan7 ie that Jesus has really ascended and is now ruling with all power.