Do we choose God or did He choose us?

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crossnote

Senior Member
Nov 24, 2012
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Paul is addressing the GROUP CHRISTIAN in this context and not individuals independent of this group:

Blessed be the God and Father of our Lord Jesus Christ, who hath blessed us (group Christian) with all spiritual blessings in heavenly places in Christ:

According as he hath chosen us (group Christian) in him before the foundation of the world,

that we (group Christian) should be holy and without blame before him in love:

Having predestinated us (group Christian) unto the adoption of children by Jesus Christ to himself, according to the good pleasure of his will,

To the praise of the glory of his grace, wherein he hath made us (group Christian) accepted in the beloved

NOTHING Paul says in this Eph 1 context applies to the individual outside the group.
Right, it applies to individual Christians.
 

SolidGround

Senior Member
Jan 15, 2014
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I do not think of my children simply as a group. I know them individually.

We are His adopted children.

Did He not know us individually 'before the foundations of the world were laid'?
Or did He only know that He was gonna have a group, and chose to have a group....

These passages would be wastes of words if they simply meant that God predestined to have a group. That means little or nothing.

It's also not the personal and relational God that is in the rest of Scripture.
 
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Kerry

Guest
I do not think of my children simply as a group. I know them individually.

We are His adopted children.

Did He not know us individually 'before the foundations of the world were laid'?
Or did He only know that He was gonna have a group, and chose to have a group....

These passages would be wastes of words if they simply meant that God predestined to have a group. That means little or nothing.

It's also not the personal and relational God that is in the rest of Scripture.
If your child was in a Gothic group and the president said kill all those who are Gothic, is he talking about the group or the individual?
 
J

john316forall

Guest
It is well worth looking into. That is what I was trying to get at. I hope you do study the sentence structures and subject/predicate realation,
as long as your goal is to find the truth,
not simply prove your side (a pit we all have fallen into at one point or another).

I am in no way offended by anything here. Quite the opposite, in fact, as I was trying to help those who were offended.

Concerned? a bit.
Offended? not in the least.
If only the "calvies" on here would actually study 'greek' sentence structure "including" prepositional phrases, gender, number, and case, 'for themselves' instead of letting others teach them what it says. If they truly did that, I guarantee you they wouldn't be a calvinist.

I do wonder, however, if you're concern is for the 'right' reason. Are you concerned if the word of God is being betrayed through false teaching? Or is it merely because those who do not agree as you do, point out logical conclusions to what is being taught about God, and you don't like it...
 
J

john316forall

Guest
What is truly offensive is when a person uses man's reason and emotions to persuade a doctrinal position and not Scripture.
Does that mean you agree with JW's that Jesus was created? Afterall, they use Scripture too.
 

SolidGround

Senior Member
Jan 15, 2014
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If only the "calvies" on here would actually study 'greek' sentence structure "including" prepositional phrases, gender, number, and case, 'for themselves' instead of letting others teach them what it says. If they truly did that, I guarantee you they wouldn't be a calvinist.

I do wonder, however, if you're concern is for the 'right' reason. Are you concerned if the word of God is being betrayed through false teaching? Or is it merely because those who do not agree as you do, point out logical conclusions to what is being taught about God, and you don't like it...
If you are assuming that I don't diagram the Greek sentences as part of my method when taking the meaning from a verse, you are mistaken.
Also, logic is definitely not my enemy. It is a great tool, one that I wish was taught in more schools.

Does that mean you agree with JW's that Jesus was created? Afterall, they use Scripture too.
Example of a logical fallacy.

See logic courses have served me well again.

A is equal to B
and you respond:
So what you're saying is C is equal to D?

Please go back and make the connections for us, as to what Jehovah's Witnesses and Jesus being created have to do with crossnote's statement.
 
I

Inquisitor

Guest
What we have here is a question asked by someone who has no biblical answers. Even the name itself is indicative of a wrong process i.e. isfreewilltrue. The question isn't "is free will true" the question should be "How does the Bible portray man?" Now of course as soon as that discussion opens the calvie creates a drive-by shooting with many verses that are topically connected but are not substantively connected. You see, the calvie thinks that because it's IN the Bible that he can then commence connecting it with any OTHER verse in the Bible and when context gets too rough he can then take the liberty of redefining words and bringing in the "weight" of philosophical questions that have no Biblical ground. This is all done to divert one's attention to the true deficit of spiritual wisdom and knowledge on the part of the one asking the questions.

The classic response is "if you don't choose between being an Jacob Armenius or John Calvin you have no place, if you are not given to foreknowledge determining man's action i.e. the "Sovereignty of God" (as they define it of course) then you are an open theist. All of these labels are thrown out to confuse and muddle the minds of the audience spoke to. All these things are false dilemmas i.e. logical fallacies the calvies and their erstwhile counterparts (the roman catholics, whose church they were/are trying to reform) have had hundreds of years to perfect.

Let me exemplify what the calvies are doing. Hypocritically they will answer this argument with the very same method that they will reject if it is applied to THEIR argument. Just watch.

Gen 9:3 Every moving thing that liveth shall be meat for you; even as the green herb have I given you all things.

This is a great verse that tells us among other things that anything that moves, is alive or grows anywhere on earth is allowed to be eaten by us. No qualifiers. This is a biblical principle, no arguing that and if you don't believe it, go look it up, it's in the bible.

Now to carry on with that thought I want to post the second verse in "our biblical, chronologically correct bible study" (plants tongue firmly in cheek)
Lev_26:29 And ye shall eat the flesh of your sons, and the flesh of your daughters shall ye eat.

Here we have a command from God telling us we should eat our children. Such a pleasant thought. Do you disagree with me? How DARE YOU go against God's word. Did he not tells us that we could eat anything? Is there anything telling us we CANT eat each other in these verses? You rebel. What makes you think your conscience is more powerful than God?? Doesn't IJohn tell us that God is greater than our heart? Do you seek to defy and twist the very scriptures themselves. Doesn't Roman's command you when sitting at meat not to question where it came from? and that all things are lawful? Well DOESN'T iT?



Now... let us compare notes with the calvie...

Joh_15:16 Ye have not chosen me, but I have chosen you, and ordained you, that ye should go and bring forth fruit, and that your fruit should remain: that whatsoever ye shall ask of the Father in my name, he may give it you.

Here is a verse that tells us that we cannot choose God, he chooses us, get over it... (generic calvie quote)

And because two is the number of witness I will now produce another verse that PROVES this is true...

Rom_9:13 As it is written, Jacob have I loved, but Esau have I hated.

God hates some people and loves others, this proves that he chooses some and not others, I'm elect (just don't ask me how I know) and you're not, nanny nanny boo boo. (a close approximation of any Calvinist lecture on this topic).

Anyone catch what the missing element is in this and every other calvinist argument?

THE CONTEXT!!!
The Calvinist has discovered that as long as he can bend you to his will by abusing scriptural quotes to CREATE doctrine as opposed to studying the scriptures in context as they were written and spoken, he has fooled you into thinking that his pseudo-contexts are the "real way" to view scripture. Don't be fooled. After all, if you use THEIR method, we can all be cannibals! Eat, drink and be merry!
I have reposted this here simply because there is no point in trying to be more creative while rehashing points that the calvie hasn't responded to. They don't respond because they don't have a response other than (like Angela) i.e. shall I post more prooftexts?? Sure, go ahead divert the issue, or like "posthuman" try to use Strongs to illustrate just how little you know about Greek, or again like Angela, post the actually t/v/m of the greek words in a passage and then in one breath say "we have to let God change us" and then after saying that we can't change ourselves... try to make the argument about the fact that someone said we change ourselves... which we did not. This is the straw man approach. Is there going to be any assessment of the facts or the language? Is this not what I stated would happen anyway?

Here is what I suggest, which no calvie (or people who think they aren't calvie because they "aren't a member of a reformed church" or "their pastor has a PhD") -as if that is any substitute for Biblical understanding, big deal he wrote a book and supported his thesis to the satisfaction of his peers, last time I checked you don't need a great intellect to understand the Bible, you need an honest one. It is obvious from the content of many of the contributors of this thread that intellectual honesty is not a strong suite. So what I propose is this... which will be distasteful to those who love to hop from passage to passage and verse to verse. Let us (as I have stated before) start in Ephesians 1 and work our way through that passage. Or for that matter let us pick any ONE NT verse used to support any of the "doctrines of grace" and examine the context,exegete and see what is being said. After seeing what is said we can consider possible meanings from audience and context, style etc and see if ANY of the claims made by those supporting Calvinist ideas are warranted.
 
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Kerry

Guest
why is it necessary to diagram Greek sentences. It is so simple that a third grader can understand. I guess we should have a thread called are you smarter than a third grader.
 
J

john316forall

Guest
Acts 13:48 *And when the gentiles heard this, they were glad, and glorified the word of the Lord: and as many as were ordained to eternal life believed.
Acts 13:48 really is a poor selection to use when trying to prove God "predestining" or "selecting" people for salvation. Even some well known Calvies stay away from it because it actually doesn't prove predestination of people to salvation AT ALL.

"Ordained" is better translated "predisposed" or "were disposed" or "inclined" according to the Nestle/Marshall Interlinear Greek New Testament. "Ordained" is a passive middle voice because the verse says they were disposed to eternal life - but it does NOT say how (no agent). It "assumes" the people are the agent because there is none mentioned.

In Greek, passive voice requires an agent in the passage. Middle voice assumes the people are the agent because they are receiving the 'effects' of their 'own action.' In other words, in Acts 13:48, THEY disposed THEMSELVES to the knowledge and 'received it' with gladness.

May as well scratch this one off the list of 'viable options' for God selecting an elite group of people for salvation and damning everyone else just because...
 

SolidGround

Senior Member
Jan 15, 2014
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Acts 13:48 really is a poor selection to use when trying to prove God "predestining" or "selecting" people for salvation. Even some well known Calvies stay away from it because it actually doesn't prove predestination of people to salvation AT ALL.

"Ordained" is better translated "predisposed" or "were disposed" or "inclined" according to the Nestle/Marshall Interlinear Greek New Testament. "Ordained" is a passive middle voice because the verse says they were disposed to eternal life - but it does NOT say how (no agent). It "assumes" the people are the agent because there is none mentioned.

In Greek, passive voice requires an agent in the passage. Middle voice assumes the people are the agent because they are receiving the 'effects' of their 'own action.' In other words, in Acts 13:48, THEY disposed THEMSELVES to the knowledge and 'received it' with gladness.

May as well scratch this one off the list of 'viable options' for God selecting an elite group of people for salvation and damning everyone else just because...
Try that again. I couldn't hear you over the sound of twisting Scripture.

But seriously. Study that word a bit more. You got some poor information, or misunderstood some good I formation.
I just looked it up in three sources, and have yet to find your interpretation.
 
K

Kerry

Guest
Try that again. I couldn't hear you over the sound of twisting Scripture.

But seriously. Study that word a bit more. You got some poor information, or misunderstood some good I formation.
I just looked it up in three sources, and have yet to find your interpretation.
But if you go back to the Aramaic and the to cuneiform writing and to the actual language that Adam spoke this is what it means and don't tell nobody or they will be saying it. Place your faith in the work of the cross. People pay me me big bucks to hear that so keep it encrypted so they have to study linguistics to really understand what God is saying. Otay buk wheat.
 
I

Inquisitor

Guest
If you are assuming that I don't diagram the Greek sentences as part of my method when taking the meaning from a verse, you are mistaken.
Also, logic is definitely not my enemy. It is a great tool, one that I wish was taught in more schools.


Example of a logical fallacy.

See logic courses have served me well again.

A is equal to B
and you respond:
So what you're saying is C is equal to D?

Please go back and make the connections for us, as to what Jehovah's Witnesses and Jesus being created have to do with crossnote's statement.
Well, if you have followed the thread, the connection would be obvious. john stated that the calvinist position was offensive (and it is) because of the inevitable portrayal of God's nature and person that their pet theology creates. Crossnote responded with a statement brushing that off and subtlety condemning john's post as if it were nothing but a rant that made no scriptural references (as if analyzing the means by which someone comes to a position needs a verse to give it weight). John in return plays to the endgame by giving an example of people who use scriptural references to prove a point to re-enforce the fact that just because scripture is involved doesn't make it right, alluding to the point that simply because scripture is NOT involved doesn't invalidate a passionate dialogue about what happens to immature believers due to Calvinist deception. If you DID know logic you would have followed this. Nothing is true simply because it cannot be dis-proven, Nothing is false simply because it cannot be proven. Everything is what it is (rule #1 the law of identity etc the law of non-identity) So in areas without authority that deal with experience (i.e. things upon which the weight of scripture does not directly apply) we are on equal ground to present obvious human reaction and struggle to the problems of Calvinistic recruitment methods. Somehow asking a rhetorical question about that becomes a logical fallacy? Sounds more to me like there is an attempt to divert the issue (which is another kind of fallacy invalidating procedure) so that the objections raised by john's post will go unanswered or get lost in the muddied waters.
 
J

john316forall

Guest
Try that again. I couldn't hear you over the sound of twisting Scripture.

But seriously. Study that word a bit more. You got some poor information, or misunderstood some good I formation.
I just looked it up in three sources, and have yet to find your interpretation.
Claiming "position through negation" are we? "Nope, not true, MY BOOKS don't say it" (nevermind that you don't tell us your sources). lol. I gave you my source, if you don't like it, I can't help that, although it's understandable that you don't like it being you're a Calvinist and all....

Here's another, quoted word for word, from Adam Clarke's own commentary: "This text has been most pitifully misunderstood. Many suppose that it simply means that those in that assembly who were fore-ordained; or predestinated by God’s decree, to eternal life, believed under the influence of that decree. Now, we should be careful to examine what a word means, before we attempt to fix its meaning. Whatever τεταγμενοι may mean, which is the word we translate ordained, it is neither προτεταγμενοι nor προορισμενοι which the apostle uses, but simply τεταγμενοι, which includes no idea of pre-ordination or pre-destination of any kind. And if it even did, it would be rather hazardous to say that all those who believed at this time were such as actually persevered unto the end, and were saved unto eternal life. But, leaving all these precarious matters, what does the word τεταγμενος mean? The verb ταττω or τασσω signifies to place, set, order, appoint, dispose; hence it has been considered here as implying the disposition or readiness of mind of several persons in the congregation, such as the religious proselytes mentioned Act_13:43, who possessed the reverse of the disposition of those Jews who spake against those things, contradicting and blaspheming, Act_13:45. Though the word in this place has been variously translated, yet, of all the meanings ever put on it, none agrees worse with its nature and known signification than that which represents it as intending those who were predestinated to eternal life: this is no meaning of the term, and should never be applied to it. Let us, without prejudice, consider the scope of the place: the Jews contradicted and blasphemed; the religious proselytes heard attentively, and received the word of life: the one party were utterly indisposed, through their own stubbornness, to receive the Gospel; the others, destitute of prejudice and prepossession, were glad to hear that, in the order of God, the Gentiles were included in the covenant of salvation through Christ Jesus; they, therefore, in this good state and order of mind, believed. Those who seek for the plain meaning of the word will find it here: those who wish to make out a sense, not from the Greek word, its use among the best Greek writers, and the obvious sense of the evangelist, but from their own creed, may continue to puzzle themselves and others;"

But seriously. Maybe YOU need to be honest with the greek language itself...instead of just flat out rejecting something because it doesn't 'agree' with your house of cards.
 

SolidGround

Senior Member
Jan 15, 2014
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I will admit that I was 'snarky', as I was just told in pm.

I'm sorry for the way I responded.

My point was to get you to look at a few other sources, and see the other translated words.
I didn't say it in a helpful way, and I hope you accept my apology.
 
I

Inquisitor

Guest
I will admit that I was 'snarky', as I was just told in pm.

I'm sorry for the way I responded.

My point was to get you to look at a few other sources, and see the other translated words.
I didn't say it in a helpful way, and I hope you accept my apology.
While an apology is a positive thing in many circumstances, I didn't see any objection from john arising from your manner, and strangely enough (or perhaps not strangely at all) found no response from you to either of the posts that provided definitive answers to questions raised. Has the issue been diverted again due to (as I have referenced in previous posts) a watertight examination of the passage with linguistics, context, style and after having seen what the passage says... then seeing what it can mean, and having discovered what it CANNOT mean i.e. people being chosen for salvation, clearly condemning the ones who still intend to come to this passage and twist it to their own ends.
 

SolidGround

Senior Member
Jan 15, 2014
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Strong's Concordance

tassó: to draw up in order, arrange
Original Word: τάσσω
Part of Speech: Verb
Transliteration: tassó
Phonetic Spelling: (tas'-so)
Short Definition: I assign, arrange
Definition: (a) I assign, arrange, (b) I determine; mid: I appoint.


HELPS Word-studies

5021 tássō – properly, arrange (put in order); to place in a particular order, appoint; (figuratively) ordain, set in place; "station" (J. Thayer).
5021 /tássō ("place in position, post") was commonly used in ancient military language for "designating" ("appointing, commissioning") a specific status, i.e. arranging (placing) in a deliberate, fixed order.
[5021 (tássō) was "primarily a military term meaning 'to draw up in order, arrange in place, assign, appoint, order' " (A-S).]


NAS Exhaustive Concordance
Word Origin
from a prim. root tag-
Definition
to draw up in order, arrange
NASB Translation
appointed (2), designated (1), determined (1), devoted (1), established (1), set (1).

Thayer's Greek Lexicon

τάσσω: 1 aorist ἔταξα; perfect infinitiveτεταχέναι (Acts 18:2 T Tr marginal reading); passive, present participle τασσόμενος; perfect 3 person singular τέτακταί, participle τεταγμένος; 1 aorist middle ἐταξαμην; from (Pindar, Aeschylus),Herodotus down; the Sept. for שׂוּם, and occasionally for נָתַן, צִוָּה, שׁוּת, etc.; to put in place; to station;

a. "to place in a certain order (Xenophon, mem. 3, 1, 7 (9)), to arrange, to assign a place, to appoint": τινα, passive, αἱ ἐξουσία ὑπό Θεοῦ τεταγμέναιεἰσιν (A. V. ordained), Romans 13:1; (καιρούς,Acts 17:26 Lachmann); ἑαυτόν, εἰς διακονίαντίνι, to consecrate (R. V. set) oneself to minister unto one, 1 Corinthians 16:15 (ἐπί τήν διακονίαν,Plato, de rep. 2, p. 371 c.; εἰς τήν δουλείαν,Xenophon, mem. 2, 1, 11); ὅσοι ἦσαντεταγμένοι εἰς ζωήν αἰώνιον, as many as were appointed (A. V. ordained) (by God) to obtain eternal life, or to whom God bad decreed eternal life,Acts 13:48; τινα ὑπό τινα, to put one under another's control (A. V. set under), passive, Matthew 8:9 L WH in brackets, the Sinaiticus manuscript; Luke 7:8 (ὑπό τινα, Polybius 3, 16, 3; 5, 65, 7; Diodorus2, 26, 8; 4, 9, 5); τίνι τί, to assign (appoint) a thing to one, passive, Acts 22:10 (Xenophon, de rep. Lac. 11, 6).
b. to appoint, ordain, order: followed by the accusative with an infinitive, Acts 15:2; ( T Tr marginal reading); (followed by an infinitive, Xenophon, Hier. 10, 4; Cyril 4, 5, 11). Middle (as often in Greek writings) properly, to appoint on one's own responsibility or authority: οὗ ἐτάξατο αὐτοῖς Ἰησοῦς namely,πορεύεσθαι, Matthew 28:16; to appoint mutually, i. e. agree upon: ἡμέραν (Polybius 18, 19, 1, etc.),Acts 28:23. (Compare: ἀνατάσσω(ἀνατάσσομαι), ἀντιτάσσω, ἀποτάσσω,διατάσσω, ἐπιδιατάσσω (ἐπιδιατάσσομαι),ἐπιτάσσω, προτάσσω, προστάσσω,συντάσσω, ὑποτάσσω. Synonym: see κελεύω, at the end.)



None of these use the word "disposition" as I have yet seen, nor have any of those implications.

 

SolidGround

Senior Member
Jan 15, 2014
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I have not seen any orthodox translation of that verse that signifies anything other than 'appoint' and 'ordain'.

The appointee is not used as the appointer in any translation I can find.
 

SolidGround

Senior Member
Jan 15, 2014
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I also found that Adam Clarke was a devote Arminianist,
so one should expect him to find offense at that verse.

Not that that is a valid logical argument. It certainly is not.
Just a note.