Elect according to the foreknowledge of God. 1 Peter 1:2

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49

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#1,401
Came in on the last few minutes of a R C Sproul sermon this morning, and it was on this very topic. Was amazed!! Wasn't by accident, no it wasn't. Digging through his archives to find that message, and listen to it in full.
 
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EleventhHour

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#1,402
OIC1965 said:
Does God respond to us or do we respond to Him? I thought I was responding to Him when I got saved.
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Is giving a gift not a response on the part of the person that is giving?
 
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OIC1965

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EleventhHour said:
Is giving a gift not a response on the part of the person that is giving?
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As long as you have the order right...God ALWAYS initiates salvation. In fact, He takes a lot of steps before we even move.

Foreknow, Predestine, sent His Son, sent His apostles, sent His Spirit, sent His Word, sent His preachers, called us.

That’s eight steps He takes before we even think about calling on Him. So yes, we respond to Him. He’s not someone that comes running when you whistle. He’s the God who COMMANDS all to repent and believe the Gospel.
 
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OIC1965

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49 said:
Came in on the last few minutes of a R C Sproul sermon this morning, and it was on this very topic. Was amazed!! Wasn't by accident, no it wasn't. Digging through his archives to find that message, and listen to it in full.
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If you find it, post it here if you like. RC was a man of God in my eyes.
 
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EleventhHour

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#1,405
#1,405
OIC1965 said:
As long as you have the order right...God ALWAYS initiates salvation. In fact, He takes a lot of steps before we even move.

Foreknow, Predestine, sent His Son, sent His apostles, sent His Spirit, sent His Word, sent His preachers, called us.

That’s eight steps He takes before we even think about calling on Him. So yes, we respond to Him. He’s not someone that comes running when you whistle. He’s the God who COMMANDS all to repent and believe the Gospel.
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God does not predestine/select certain people to salvation.
 
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throughfaith

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Aug 4, 2020
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OIC1965 said:
What is the righteousness that the world needs to be convicted of? I don't think you know. We know that the sin that the world needs to be convicted of is contextually unbelief. So what is the remedy for the sin of unbelief?

Perhaps putting your trust in someone else's righteousness instead of your own. Because the verse does say that the righteousness is referring to Jesus, and the world is seeing Jesus no more. So what does the Spirit convict the world of? The righteousness of Christ Himself. Which interestingly enough, becomes our righteousness in justification.

The Spirit points out the sin of our unbelief, points to the Righteousness of Christ, and then to the victory at the cross over satan.
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Again , that sounds real preachy . You,d get away with it on a Sunday school class .
 
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throughfaith

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OIC1965 said:
Apart from Grace? Of course I believe in total inability apart from Grace. Unto us it is GRANTED not only to believe but also to suffer for His sake. Philippians 1:29. The greek word translated "granted" is charizomai, which is related to the word "charis" or grace. It has been graced to us, freely given to us, given graciously to us TO BELIEVE.
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Grace is a ubiquitous reality, not a selective force. (Tit. 2:11-13)

Grace is just fine on it’s own as it’s found in scripture. Any modifier other than “free,” such as “sovereign,” “irresistible,” or “prevenient” indicate someone is either confused or attempting to confuse. (Rom. 3:24; 5:15; Jn. 1:16; Tit. 2:11-13)
 
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throughfaith

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OIC1965 said:
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Easy for you to say, seeing you have no stated position on what thisverses means, and don't even know what Ephesians 1;4 actually says. Anyone can go and read Ephesians 4 and see it clearly says God chose us in Him before the foundation of the world. My seven year old grandson can read that verse. .
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You can make any isolated verse fit a paradigm.
 
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throughfaith

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OIC1965 said:
Which brings us to our point. DO you believe in imputed righteousness?
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There are many things that are supposedly used to encapsulate what we mean . Like doctrines, confessions , slogans and catch phrases ect. But we can have different meanings behind them. So you'd have to explain what you mean ?
 
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throughfaith

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#1,413
Aug 4, 2020
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#1,413
OIC1965 said:
Does God respond to us or do we respond to Him? I thought I was responding to Him when I got saved.

As long as you get the order right.

God calls. We call upon Him. He saves

While we’re talking about calling,the order is foreknew, predestined, called, justified, glorified.
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Naaman was told to go dip in the river . Did he save himself ? Did the river save him ? We are told to Go tell others to believe the Gospel . Thats how savation is appropriated today . The object of what people place their faith in saves ( Jesus ) . Every day I get into my car and trust that it will get me to work . A person places their trust in the one who will get them to Glorification. its not us that saves . Its not the fact of our faith that saves . Its the object of our faith that saves . Faith is the prerequisite to being saved . 1cor1.21
 
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OIC1965

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EleventhHour said:
God does not predestine/select certain people to salvation.
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I never used the words "to salvation" as has already been stated. Ephesians 1:4-5 God chose us in Him before the foundation of the world that we should be holy and without blame before Him in love, having predestined us to the adoption of sons, according to the good pleasure of His will
 
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OIC1965

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throughfaith said:
Grace is a ubiquitous reality, not a selective force. (Tit. 2:11-13)

Grace is just fine on it’s own as it’s found in scripture. Any modifier other than “free,” such as “sovereign,” “irresistible,” or “prevenient” indicate someone is either confused or attempting to confuse. (Rom. 3:24; 5:15; Jn. 1:16; Tit. 2:11-13)
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How about when you add ubiquitous as a modifier? And by the way, Hoss, I did not use a modifier. And I'm sorry to hear that you limit God's Soverienty.
 
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OIC1965

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throughfaith said:
You can make any isolated verse fit a paradigm.
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That's what people say when they don't like what a verse says. Having chosen us in HIM before the foundation of the world means the same by itself that it means when read in the longest sentence in the Bible. It means God chose us in Him before the foundation of the world. Paul is not using double talk.

You don't like what it says, so you change "having chosen us in Him" to "having chosen our blessings in Him". That is worse than eisegesis. That is changing words. The word "US" is in every text and every translation, but you EXCLUDE IT. That's a scary thing.
 
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OIC1965

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throughfaith said:
There are many things that are supposedly used to encapsulate what we mean . Like doctrines, confessions , slogans and catch phrases ect. But we can have different meanings behind them. So you'd have to explain what you mean ?
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There is only one meaning of "imputed righteousness". It means you are justified when you believe because Christ's perfect righteousness is IMPUTED to you. It's the only real basis for righteousness.
 
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John146

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OIC1965 said:
That's what people say when they don't like what a verse says. Having chosen us in HIM before the foundation of the world means the same by itself that it means when read in the longest sentence in the Bible. It means God chose us in Him before the foundation of the world. Paul is not using double talk.

You don't like what it says, so you change "having chosen us in Him" to "having chosen our blessings in Him". That is worse than eisegesis. That is changing words. The word "US" is in every text and every translation, but you EXCLUDE IT. That's a scary thing.
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Why does he do this and you don’t? Because he recognizes the word “according” which takes the context back to verse three. I’ve noticed every time you quote the verse you leave that word out. Why? Why do you leave that word out? Don’t you believe every word of God is important? Or do you know that one word destroys your theology?
 
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