I would call it a different idea in respect to hermeneutics.
Bad hermeneutics is bad hermeneutics, not "different" hermeneutics. Again, you don't find the truth of a principle by looking for examples where it is
not used. You get the understanding of a word by looking at where it
is used
.
If you are looking for the words "blasphemy violates the first commandment" verbatim I am sure you will not find those words in that exact order in the Bible. But it does most certainly ring true . The works of Blasphemy is violate of the commandments. The two work together as one action to form one thought.
Please don't spin what I wrote and waste your time responding to what I didn't write. Blasphemy is not mere "violation of the commandments". That idea simply doesn't appear in Scripture.
Committing blasphemy is to violate all the commandments making them to no effect.
No, it isn't. Again, that idea doesn't appear in Scripture. The closest thing is the passage you quoted from Numbers, but there the concept is defiant, intentional sin, not merely "violation".
Blasphemy defined with no other meaning attached is "to speak evil or act evil" .
Not in Scripture it isn't.
Mathew below show those who refused to hear and believe the word of God. The faithless ones accusing the Son of man of Blasphemy correctly . ...
Matthew 26:64-66 King James Version (KJV)Jesus saith unto him, Thou hast said: nevertheless I say unto you, Hereafter shall ye see the Son of man sitting on the right hand of power, and coming in the clouds of heaven.Then the high priest rent his clothes, saying, He hath spoken blasphemy; what further need have we of witnesses? behold, now ye have heard his blasphemy.What think ye? They answered and said, He is guilty of death.
They used the term "blasphemy" correctly in this case, but they applied it incorrectly as Jesus was not committing blasphemy. The context demonstrates that their use of it was based on Jesus' self-identification as God.
Revelation 2 adds to the witness Blasphemy violates the commandments .There we are inform that some were masquerading as inward born again Jews but they were from the synagogue of Satan also called legion as in many gods. this reflect on the first commandment to have no goods before our living God.
Revelation 2:8-10 King James Version (KJV)8 And unto the angel of the church in Smyrna write; These things saith the first and the last, which was dead, and is alive;9 I know thy works, and tribulation, and poverty, (but thou art rich) and I know the blasphemy of them which say they are Jews, and are not, but are the synagogue of Satan..
This passage does not add "to the witness [that] blasphemy violates the commandments". That idea simply isn't in the text.
If Peter did not blaspheme the Son of man by violating the first commandment by trusting or putting the god of this world, Legion (gods) or called Satan before eternal God then what would you call the work of Peter led by the spirt of the antichrist... a slip??
But he turned, and said unto Peter, Get thee behind me, Satan: thou art an offence unto me: for thou savourest not the things that be of God, but those that be of men.Mathew 16
Peter was forgiven of His blasphemy .Today it is unforgivable against the holy Spirit not seen.
Again, "blasphemy" is not in that passage. You can't use a passage to define a word where that word isn't in the passage. You can't defend any statement about blasphemy using this passage, because such is an argument from silence.