Favourite Bible Translations

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throughfaith

Well-known member
Aug 4, 2020
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#61
See my previous post, and stop being utterly ridiculous.
Thats what i used to say " oh it doesn't affect the essentials of the faith, oh its only a minor difference what matters is the bigger picture , it doesn't effect salvation , blah, blah " . Try a multi version bible study . I Gurantee you won't be saying that afterwards . I leave it at that .
 
Nov 23, 2013
13,684
1,212
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#62
Well let's look at another . This came up in our study.
2 Corinthians 3:16 KJV

“Nevertheless when it shall turn to the Lord, the vail shall be taken away.”

OTHERS

Nevertheless when one turns to the Lord, the veil is taken away.
NASB
but whenever a person turns to the Lord, the veil is taken away.
NLT
But whenever someone turns to the Lord, the veil is taken away

But whenever anyone turns to the Lord, the veil is taken away.

The context is ISRAEL / Jews . Not ' anyone ' .
The IT in the verse is the heart, not the people. When the heart is turned to the Lord the vail over the heart will be removed.
 

Dino246

Senior Member
Jun 30, 2015
24,688
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#63
Well let's look at another . This came up in our study.
2 Corinthians 3:16 KJV

“Nevertheless when it shall turn to the Lord, the vail shall be taken away.”

OTHERS

Nevertheless when one turns to the Lord, the veil is taken away.
NASB
but whenever a person turns to the Lord, the veil is taken away.
NLT
But whenever someone turns to the Lord, the veil is taken away

But whenever anyone turns to the Lord, the veil is taken away.

The context is ISRAEL / Jews . Not ' anyone ' .
Yes, the context is Israel, which is clear from preceding verses. You bleated earlier about context, and you just committed the error of ignoring context.

Further, is "anyone" somehow more misleading than "it"? When "it" shall turn to the Lord? That's anything but clear.
 
S

Scribe

Guest
#64
Well let's look at another . This came up in our study.
2 Corinthians 3:16 KJV

“Nevertheless when it shall turn to the Lord, the vail shall be taken away.”

OTHERS

Nevertheless when one turns to the Lord, the veil is taken away.
NASB
but whenever a person turns to the Lord, the veil is taken away.
NLT
But whenever someone turns to the Lord, the veil is taken away

But whenever anyone turns to the Lord, the veil is taken away.

The context is ISRAEL / Jews . Not ' anyone ' .
The word is epistrepsē which means shall turn neither one, or it is in the original. Both are added to make the sentence complete in English. Which one should it be? More investigation about the Greek needs to be analyzed. You can't decide until you know the Greek rules and grammar.
 

throughfaith

Well-known member
Aug 4, 2020
10,467
1,593
113
#65
Yes, the context is Israel, which is clear from preceding verses. You bleated earlier about context, and you just committed the error of ignoring context.

Further, is "anyone" somehow more misleading than "it"? When "it" shall turn to the Lord? That's anything but clear.
It ( feminine) = ISRAEL . Anyone is not specifically ISRAEL . This verse does not refer to anything but Israel . The Context is ISRAEL so why ' Anyone '? in the NIV ? its not ' anyone .' The NLT even worse still . This verse is important to Rom 11 .
 

throughfaith

Well-known member
Aug 4, 2020
10,467
1,593
113
#66
Yes, the context is Israel, which is clear from preceding verses. You bleated earlier about context, and you just committed the error of ignoring context.

Further, is "anyone" somehow more misleading than "it"? When "it" shall turn to the Lord? That's anything but clear.
You have ' it ' referring to the Holy Spirit in places also .
 
S

Scribe

Guest
#68
Well let's look at another . This came up in our study.
2 Corinthians 3:16 KJV

“Nevertheless when it shall turn to the Lord, the vail shall be taken away.”

OTHERS

Nevertheless when one turns to the Lord, the veil is taken away.
NASB
but whenever a person turns to the Lord, the veil is taken away.
NLT
But whenever someone turns to the Lord, the veil is taken away

But whenever anyone turns to the Lord, the veil is taken away.

The context is ISRAEL / Jews . Not ' anyone ' .
Literally= if shall have turned to Lord shall have taken away the veil.

I like KJV1611 user said. The Heart is the context.

7But if the ministration of death, written and engraven in stones, was glorious, so that the children of Israel could not stedfastly behold the face of Moses for the glory of his countenance; which glory was to be done away: 8How shall not the ministration of the spirit be rather glorious? 9For if the ministration of condemnation be glory, much more doth the ministration of righteousness exceed in glory. 10For even that which was made glorious had no glory in this respect, by reason of the glory that excelleth. 11For if that which is done away was glorious, much more that which remaineth is glorious.

12Seeing then that we have such hope, we use great plainness of speech: 13And not as Moses, which put a vail over his face, that the children of Israel could not stedfastly look to the end of that which is abolished: 14But their minds were blinded: for until this day remaineth the same vail untaken away in the reading of the old testament; which vail is done away in Christ. 15But even unto this day, when Moses is read, the vail is upon their heart. 16Nevertheless when it shall turn to the Lord, the vail shall be taken away. 17Now the Lord is that Spirit: and where the Spirit of the Lord is, there is liberty. 18But we all, with open face beholding as in a glass the glory of the Lord, are changed into the same image from glory to glory, even as by the Spirit of the Lord.

It is using an OT example of how we all are changed into the image of the glory of the Lord by the Spirit of the Lord by turning to Christ in faith and not shrinking back in unbeleif. We are not to be like them. It was not a good thing that they could not look at the glory on Moses face. They shrank back in unbelief when they should have been wanting to experience the same glory.
BUT WE WITH AN OPEN FACE BEHOLD the Glory of the Lord and are changed from glory to glory.
 
S

Scribe

Guest
#70
It ( feminine) = ISRAEL . Anyone is not specifically ISRAEL . This verse does not refer to anything but Israel . The Context is ISRAEL so why ' Anyone '? in the NIV ? its not ' anyone .' The NLT even worse still . This verse is important to Rom 11 .
The context is about those that shrank back from wanting to look at Moses face and it is exposing a heart of unbelief that we are not to follow, we are to have an Open Face. The context is the HEART of those that shrank back.

It is not a dispensational verse as you want to make everything fit into your tunnel vision bad heremeutics.

So in conclusion you were upset about the changes in other translations because IT fits your narrative but you are misapplying IT as well, the HEART is the IT. Read it again.

KJV
15But even unto this day, when Moses is read, the vail is upon their heart. 16Nevertheless when it shall turn to the Lord, the vail shall be taken away.

So crystal clear if you remove the vail of your dispensational filter.
 

Dino246

Senior Member
Jun 30, 2015
24,688
13,377
113
#71
It ( feminine) = ISRAEL . Anyone is not specifically ISRAEL . This verse does not refer to anything but Israel . The Context is ISRAEL so why ' Anyone '? in the NIV ? its not ' anyone .' The NLT even worse still . This verse is important to Rom 11 .
"It" is NOT feminine in English!

Like I already noted, the CONTEXT clearly shows that Israel is in view. It would have been redundant to specify Israelites in verse 16. Nobody is going to be confused if they read the verse in context. It's only when you remove it from its context and try to interpret it independently that you are in danger of error, and it really doesn't matter anyway, because if you're discussing gentiles, there is no veil of the Law to be removed!

Nobody who knows anything about biblical interpretation takes a single verse and treats it as though it is the whole doctrine on anything, yet that is exactly what you are claiming.
 
S

Scribe

Guest
#72
It ( feminine) = ISRAEL . Anyone is not specifically ISRAEL . This verse does not refer to anything but Israel . The Context is ISRAEL so why ' Anyone '? in the NIV ? its not ' anyone .' The NLT even worse still . This verse is important to Rom 11 .
Well since IT is not in the Greek it is not possible that you could have found evidence to call it "feminine" and you are just making stuff up. LOL the word is epistrepsē shall turn. It is not there. It was added by the KJV translators.
 

Dino246

Senior Member
Jun 30, 2015
24,688
13,377
113
#73
In the KJV of that verse, "the brother of" is in italics, meaning those words were not in the original language. Meanwhile, there is a footnote in the NASB which references 1 Chronicles 20:5, where "Lahmi, the brother of" appears in both translations. It's clear to anyone who gives it a moment of attention.

Given that your KJV likely does NOT have footnotes, you are left with three options:

- the KJV translators added words to Scripture
- the NASB is different but perfectly acceptable
- you have to justify the KJV with some ridiculous circular-reasoning claim about re-inspiration

Take your pick. :)
 
Nov 23, 2013
13,684
1,212
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#74
The whole point is the heart is the issue. People who’s heart is not toward God have a vail over their hearts. Just follow any works salvation thread and you can see this people in live action.

It doesn’t matter what you say to these people or what scripture you show them, they will twist all of them because their heart is not right with God.
 

John146

Senior Member
Jan 13, 2016
16,642
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#75
In the KJV of that verse, "the brother of" is in italics, meaning those words were not in the original language. Meanwhile, there is a footnote in the NASB which references 1 Chronicles 20:5, where "Lahmi, the brother of" appears in both translations. It's clear to anyone who gives it a moment of attention.

Given that your KJV likely does NOT have footnotes, you are left with three options:

- the KJV translators added words to Scripture
- the NASB is different but perfectly acceptable
- you have to justify the KJV with some ridiculous circular-reasoning claim about re-inspiration

Take your pick. :)
Or...

-the KJV is the word of God (besides, we don't have the original)
-the NASB contradicts itself
-does one put trust in the text or the footnotes?
 

Dino246

Senior Member
Jun 30, 2015
24,688
13,377
113
#76
You have ' it ' referring to the Holy Spirit in places also .
Please explain; I don't use "it" in reference to the Holy Spirit, so what are you talking about? For that matter, how is this even remotely relevant to 2 Corinthians 3:16?
 

John146

Senior Member
Jan 13, 2016
16,642
3,533
113
#77
In the KJV of that verse, "the brother of" is in italics, meaning those words were not in the original language. Meanwhile, there is a footnote in the NASB which references 1 Chronicles 20:5, where "Lahmi, the brother of" appears in both translations. It's clear to anyone who gives it a moment of attention.

Given that your KJV likely does NOT have footnotes, you are left with three options:

- the KJV translators added words to Scripture
- the NASB is different but perfectly acceptable
- you have to justify the KJV with some ridiculous circular-reasoning claim about re-inspiration

Take your pick. :)
And btw, translations can be inspired by God.
 

Truth7t7

Well-known member
May 19, 2020
7,685
2,492
113
#78
Interesting! I found this:

The earliest witnesses by a long shot do not contain what we today call verse 24. The verse is absent in Papyrus 46 (late second/early third century), Codex א and Codex B (fourth-century), Codex A and Codex C (both fifth century), Papyrus 61 (seventh or eighth century) Uncial 0150 and Minuscule 2464 (ninth century), and other later Greek manuscripts on through the middle ages. An eighth-century Old Latin manuscript (itb) and the early copies of the Vulgate also lack the verse. Likewise, the verse is absent in virtually the entire Coptic manuscript tradition across all the various dialects.

The verse, as it is found in the KJV, is present in Codex D (sixth century), Codex L and Codex Ψ (ninth century), and in the majority of later medieval Greek manuscripts. It is found in Old Latin manuscripts from the sixth century and afterward. Later copies of the Vulgate contain the verse as well, as do some later Syriac manuscripts. The verse is also found in the Old Slavonic translation. To these witnesses, one could also add Codex F and G (both ninth century), which contain most of the verse, though they lack the words "Jesus Christ," saying only, "The grace of our Lord be with you all. Amen." Altogether, there is no evidence of the verse prior to the sixth century AD, and in the earliest of these witnesses, though the words are in verse 24, they are missing at the end of verse 20.

Interestingly, there are still other manuscripts that do not have verse 24 but that do repeat the words of verse 20, "the grace of our Lord Jesus Christ be with you, Amen," just in another place instead. Codex P and Minuscule 33 (ninth century), and a number of other Greek manuscripts on through the middle ages contain these words, the same words as Roman 16:24, but not in the same location. In these copies, the phrase comes at the end of the chapter, after verse 27. This is also the reading of the Syriac Peshitta, some Vulgate manuscripts, a few late Coptic manuscripts, and in the Armenian, Ethiopic, and Georgian translations. source
Wow, my KJV has been wrong a this time, for 409 years, only to have Adulterer Kurt Aland, his Adulterous wife Barbara Nee Ehlers, And homosexual union supporter, and Roman catholic Jesuit cardinal, bring the truth in their created Greek text (Novum Testamentum Graece) that supports all new bible versions

A Masterpiece, The King James Bible and its translators, all confessing Christian's, scholars beyond comparison!

For a closer look at the King James Bible and its translators, check out the attached link
 

Dino246

Senior Member
Jun 30, 2015
24,688
13,377
113
#79
Or...

-the KJV is the word of God (besides, we don't have the original)
-the NASB contradicts itself
-does one put trust in the text or the footnotes?
None of those hold water. The first is merely an opinion of exclusivity not supported by evidence, the second is already explained by the footnotes that accompany the text and which are part of the translation, and the third is covered by the explanation to the second.