Favourite Bible Translations

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John146

Senior Member
Jan 13, 2016
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The KJV of 2 Chronicles 22:2 says, "Forty and two years old was Ahaziah when he began to reign" in contradiction to 2 Kings 8:26 "Two and twenty years old was Ahaziah when he began to reign."

Don't bother posting your convoluted excuse for this; your use of "lie" negates the validity of it.
This has been debunked many times in many other threads.
 

John146

Senior Member
Jan 13, 2016
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i think it's more accurate to say that people who believe the KJV is 100% accurate and perfect in every way have never accepted any proof to the contrary.
There is always a truthful reconciliation for every so called accusation.
 

John146

Senior Member
Jan 13, 2016
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i think it's more accurate to say that people who believe the KJV is 100% accurate and perfect in every way have never accepted any proof to the contrary.

i mean, if i mention that the words 'yam suph' cannot possibly be legitimately translated as 'red sea' but that it unquestionably means 'sea of reeds' -- even if you acquiesce the fact you will argue that 'red sea' is superior to a faithful & accurate translation for some reason, right?

it seems to me it's not so much that it's never been proven to be a less than ideal translation into the foreign language that English is, but that to those who believe that it is, no proof will ever be sufficient to make them believe otherwise.
Whereas, the new versions have outright lies and obvious contradictions.
 

Lanolin

Well-known member
Dec 15, 2018
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thats quite weird about the 'sea of reeds' translation because it was so obvious that God parted the RED sea for the israelites to cross, theres even archaelogical evidence that they crossed it.
 

Lucy-Pevensie

Senior Member
Dec 20, 2017
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I don't mind notes, but the notes never take precedent over the clear reading of the text. The notes are the opinions of the author. In some cases in the new versions the notes are true and the text is a lie as in 2 Samuel 21:19.
Translators are not authors & they don't claim to be. Learn the difference.
The clear reading of the text as you call it isn't always obvious. With an ancient work this is not a surprise.
It's more surprising that it doesn't happen far more often than it does.

It's a bad sign that you are prepared to defend your cult more than you are prepared to defend the integrity of the Bible.
AGAIN. All the bibles I've seen have notes explaining the translation difficulties there. All but the one you worship.

NET below having the most detailed explanation.


The Hebrew text as it stands reads, “Elhanan son of Jaare-Oregim the Bethlehemite killed Goliath the Gittite.” Who killed Goliath the Gittite? According to 1 Sam 17:4-58 it was David who killed Goliath, but according to the MT of 2 Sam 21:19 it was Elhanan who killed him. Many scholars believe that the two passages are hopelessly at variance with one another. Others have proposed various solutions to the difficulty, such as identifying David with Elhanan or positing the existence of two Goliaths. But in all likelihood the problem is the result of difficulties in the textual transmission of the Samuel passage. The parallel passage in 1 Chr 20:5 reads, “Elhanan son of Jair killed Lahmi the brother of Goliath.” Both versions are textually suspect. The Chronicles text appears to have misread “Bethlehemite” (בֵּית הַלַּחְמִי, bet hallakhmi) as the accusative sign followed by a proper name אֶת לַחְמִי (ʾet lakhmi). (See the note at 1 Chr 20:5.) The Samuel text appears to have misread the word for “brother” (אַח, ʾakh) as the accusative sign (אֵת, ʾet), thereby giving the impression that Elhanan, not David, killed Goliath. Thus in all probability the original text read, “Elhanan son of Jair the Bethlehemite killed the brother of Goliath.”
 
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eternally-gratefull

Guest
Do you see the baby


Actually, the KJV defines itself as always. The wording is elementary. It's not another, meaning, it's the same gospel message but it's been perverted by adding to it, and in this case the works or circumcision. Adding anything to the cross is a perversion.
Nope it does not have the same message, if it did it would not be a different gospel. That’s why Paul said whoever teaches it, let them literally be damned,

the KJV seriously got it wrong here,
 
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eternally-gratefull

Guest
... which is no good news ("gospel") at all.

smh...
Which is why he said they should be dammed

john here is watering down pauls words, which means the kjv must be watering down pauls words.
see the irony
 

John146

Senior Member
Jan 13, 2016
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Nope it does not have the same message, if it did it would not be a different gospel. That’s why Paul said whoever teaches it, let them literally be damned,

the KJV seriously got it wrong here,
It doesn't surprise me that the new version got it wrong since they are in league with the RCC which perverts the gospel of Christ.
 
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eternally-gratefull

Guest
It doesn't surprise me that the new version got it wrong since they are in league with the RCC which perverts the gospel of Christ.
Yet the KJV got it wrong this time, even the NKJV had a better translation, because it corrected the kjv’s mistake
 

true_believer

Well-known member
Sep 24, 2020
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Thanks for sharing that link! It's very informative and clearly identifies the issues behind differences between NIV and KJV wording.
The irony is that before I became a Christian, I did a lot of research in regards to Bible translations.
This was one of the sites I came across.
 

John146

Senior Member
Jan 13, 2016
17,129
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Thanks for sharing that link! It's very informative and clearly identifies the issues behind differences between NIV and KJV wording.
The ever changing, gender neutered “new” 2011 NIV has changed about 40% of the verses from the way they read in the 1984 NIV, and they often change or add to the underlying Greek and Hebrew texts they previously followed. You can see for yourself the changes they have now made at this site here -

http://www.biblewebapp.com/niv2011-changes/#summary

At this site you will see that the new 2011 NIV has changed the wording of 40% of the verses from the way they were written in the 1984 NIV. They have removed 32,863 words and added 34,469 different words. They often change or add to the Hebrew text that they previously used and they have changed the underlying Greek text numerous times in their New Testament.

In some very few places, they have made it right. BUT for the most part, the new NIV 2011 has gotten a lot worse than even their 1984 NIV edition was. I will show you several examples in this study.
 

fredoheaven

Senior Member
Nov 17, 2015
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...Continuation on Another Gospel

Heteros as defined by Thayer where the primary meaning is another as used in Galatian 1:6 which is defined also as “different” being used by Homer .

2. to quality; another i. e. one not of the same nature, form, class, kind; different (so in Greek writings from Homer down): Romans 7:23; 1 Corinthians 14:21; 1 Corinthians 15:40; 2 Corinthians 11:4; Galatians 1:6; Hebrews 7:11, 13, 15; James 2:25; Jude 1:7. (Synonym: see ἄλλος.)

James Strong has again a primary usage of “another” or the meaning of “other” or others put it “the other”

Strong's Concordance

heteros: other

Original Word: ἕτερος, α, ον
Part of Speech: Adjective
Transliteration: heteros
Phonetic Spelling: (het'-er-os)
Definition: other
Usage: (a) of two: another, a second, (b) other, different, (c) one's neighbor



Hanbook of Greek Synonyms by Alexandre Pillon pp.57 Heteros means “of two”, other, another while Allos is different.



The KJV “an other” is contracted which is the same as another. The context in the book of Galatian is being introduce to believing the “faith + works” salvation. The gospel message is to be receive by faith, the problem is that Judaizers have introduce “an other” gospel which is not another but a mixture, corrupting the true gospel by adding a work based salvation or the Law on the already established faith of the Galatian believer's and that is the problem. It is not "different gospel" in the sense that it does not involved faith so that this will introduce another one of different kind i.e. salvation is by Law or works only, but rather it is Grace + Law that was introduce to the Galatian believers.
 

true_believer

Well-known member
Sep 24, 2020
940
360
63
The ever changing, gender neutered “new” 2011 NIV has changed about 40% of the verses from the way they read in the 1984 NIV, and they often change or add to the underlying Greek and Hebrew texts they previously followed. You can see for yourself the changes they have now made at this site here -

http://www.biblewebapp.com/niv2011-changes/#summary

At this site you will see that the new 2011 NIV has changed the wording of 40% of the verses from the way they were written in the 1984 NIV. They have removed 32,863 words and added 34,469 different words. They often change or add to the Hebrew text that they previously used and they have changed the underlying Greek text numerous times in their New Testament.

In some very few places, they have made it right. BUT for the most part, the new NIV 2011 has gotten a lot worse than even their 1984 NIV edition was. I will show you several examples in this study.
I found a copy of a 1984 NIV on Amazon. I used it extensively in 2018 and 2019. It fell apart and I'm trying to find another.
 
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eternally-gratefull

Guest
...Continuation on Another Gospel

Heteros as defined by Thayer where the primary meaning is another as used in Galatian 1:6 which is defined also as “different” being used by Homer .

2. to quality; another i. e. one not of the same nature, form, class, kind; different (so in Greek writings from Homer down): Romans 7:23; 1 Corinthians 14:21; 1 Corinthians 15:40; 2 Corinthians 11:4; Galatians 1:6; Hebrews 7:11, 13, 15; James 2:25; Jude 1:7. (Synonym: see ἄλλος.)

James Strong has again a primary usage of “another” or the meaning of “other” or others put it “the other”

Strong's Concordance

heteros: other

Original Word: ἕτερος, α, ον
Part of Speech: Adjective
Transliteration: heteros
Phonetic Spelling: (het'-er-os)
Definition: other
Usage: (a) of two: another, a second, (b) other, different, (c) one's neighbor



Hanbook of Greek Synonyms by Alexandre Pillon pp.57 Heteros means “of two”, other, another while Allos is different.



The KJV “an other” is contracted which is the same as another. The context in the book of Galatian is “faith + works”. The gospel message is to be receive by faith, the problem is that Judaizers have introduce “an other” gospel which is not another but a mixture, corrupting the true gospel by adding a work based salvation or the Law on the already established faith of the Galatian believer's and that is the problem. It is not "different gospel" in the sense that it does not involved faith so that this will introduce another one of different kind i.e. salvation is by Law or works only, but rather it is Grace + Law that was introduce to the Galatian believers.
Again, a more accurate translation would be that these Jews were teaching a different gospel, which is not another

saying another gospel which is not another (KJV) is

1. contradictory. (It is another but it is not another, which one is it? )
2. confusing
3. not exact In accordance with the text.

as you can see, both another and different are proper words, but in context, different is a better fit
 

John146

Senior Member
Jan 13, 2016
17,129
3,689
113
I found a copy of a 1984 NIV on Amazon. I used it extensively in 2018 and 2019. It fell apart and I'm trying to find another.
It's not in print anymore because they changed it trying to correct an update it.