Galatians 4:30 - the death knell for dispensationalism

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7

7seasrekeyed

Guest
#41
rom 11: 28 Concerning the gospel they are enemies for your sake, but concerning the election they arebeloved for the sake of the fathers. 29 For the gifts and the calling of God are irrevocable. 30 For as you were once disobedient to God, yet have now obtained mercy through their disobedience, 31 even so these also have now been disobedient, that through the mercy shown you they also may obtain mercy. 32 For God has committed them all to disobedience, that He might have mercy on all.

please don't consider writing a commentary

ever
 

FlSnookman7

Senior Member
Jun 27, 2015
1,125
135
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#42
Thank you everyone for the input. A few more questions...Locutus, do you believe that the second coming has already occurred? Do you believe the jews are still God's chosen people? Also, can anyone let me know if Abraham's slave child was the forefather of islam? Again, I appreciate all the responses, thank you?
 

Locutus

Senior Member
Feb 10, 2017
5,928
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#43
Adam Clarke was a Methodist so that makes his eschatology a-millennial, which is pretty much the same as the Reformed, RC and Orthodox churches among others.

What he's written is exactly what Paul stated in Gal 4:30 that the persecuting Jews would be cast out, which is precisely what happened in the war of 66-70 AD so your beef is with Paul and Christ and Isaiah.


1 Th 2:16 Forbidding us to speak to the Gentiles that they might be saved, to fill up their sins alway: for the wrath is come upon them to the uttermost.

Mat 23:31 Wherefore ye be witnesses unto yourselves, that ye are the children of them which killed the prophets.

Mat 23:32
Fill ye up then the measure of your fathers.

Mat 23:33
Ye serpents, ye generation of vipers, how can ye escape the damnation of hell?

Isa 65:15 And ye shall leave your name for a curse unto my chosen:
for the Lord GOD shall slay thee, and call his servants by another name:
 

Locutus

Senior Member
Feb 10, 2017
5,928
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#44
Thank you everyone for the input. A few more questions...Locutus, do you believe that the second coming has already occurred? Do you believe the jews are still God's chosen people? Also, can anyone let me know if Abraham's slave child was the forefather of islam? Again, I appreciate all the responses, thank you?
No, the "chosen" status for the Jew/Israel as nation ended with the old covenant FIS, Israel's nation and priesthood was a shadow of the body of Christ:

Col 2:16 Let no man therefore judge you in meat, or in drink, or in respect of an holyday, or of the new moon, or of the sabbath days:

Col 2:17 Which are a shadow of things to come; but the body is of Christ.

While Paul is primarily speaking here of ordinances etc, the same shadow typology is applicable to the land, temple, priesthood and nation.

The temple is a spiritual temple, the land is the heavenly Jerusalem, the priesthood consists of all believers in Christ.

1 Pet 2:9 But ye are a chosen generation, a royal priesthood, an holy nation, a peculiar people; that ye should show forth the praises of him who hath called you out of darkness into his marvelous light.

1 Cor 3:16 Know ye not that ye are the temple of God, and that the Spirit of God dwelleth in you?

First was the physical nation/temple/priesthood then the spiritual:

1 Cor 15:46 Howbeit that was not first which is spiritual, but that which is natural; and afterward that which is spiritual.
 

Angela53510

Senior Member
Jan 24, 2011
11,784
2,955
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#45
Dispensationalism summary


  • Literal interpretation of the Bible
  • God works via different arrangements in distinct periods of history
  • Israel is the literal descendants of Abraham, not spiritual ones
  • Israel is the heir to the promises made to Abraham about the seed being blessed
  • Participation in the Abrahamic Covenant is “mainly” by physical birth in Jewish lineage
  • Two distinct people groups: Israel and the Church
  • Church began at Pentecost
  • Salvation is by faith in accordance to the revelation given in a particular dispensation
  • The Holy Spirit did not indwell people in all dispensations, only during the dispensation of the Church Age
  • Christ will reign in the future 1000 year period which occurs after the rapture
Sorry I am posting as I am studying, the above is from carm.

I pretty much agree with the above statements, could you show me where they are in error?


The whole underpinning of dispensationalism are the bolded parts. If you prove them wrong, I guess the whole silly thing falls apart.

So, you want a LITERAL interpretation of the Bible, which includes a rapture!

"[FONT=&quot]Then we who are alive, who are left, will be suddenly caught up together with them in the clouds to meet the Lord in the air. And so we will always be with the Lord." 1 Thess. 4:17 NET[/FONT][FONT=&quot]
[/FONT]

Note that the ones who are LEFT, will be the ones who greet the Lord, not the ones who are "gone" or "raptured."

I have searched high and low, and the word "rapture" is not in any Bible translation I have read, nor Greek or Hebrew. In fact, it was one of Jerome's many mistakes in the Latin Vulgate, when he transliterated 1 Thess. 4:17 from Greek to Latin. Notice, not translate, but transliterate. That means taking a word in another language, which he didn't know, and putting it in the translation by sounds.

So, here is the Greek:


"[FONT=&quot]ἔπειτα ἡμεῖς οἱ ζῶντες οἱ περιλειπόμενοι ἅμα σὺν αὐτοῖς ἁρπαγησόμεθα ἐν νεφέλαις εἰς ἀπάντησιν τοῦ κυρίου εἰς ἀέρα· καὶ οὕτως πάντοτε σὺν κυρίῳ ἐσόμεθα." 1 Thess. 4:17[/FONT]

And here is the Latin:

"deinde nos qui vivimus qui relinquimur simul rapiemur cum illis in nubibus obviam Domino in aera et sic semper cum Domino erimus" 1 Thess. 4:17

Now, I am not 100% sure, but I think that
rapiemur, might be the transliteration for ἁρπαγησόμεθα! And I have no intention of ever learning Latin, and yet, that is what Erasmus used for his translation, and hence the KJV comes from this. Since, they basically used Erasmus' translation.

ἁρπαγησόμεθα is a future indicative passive verb in Greek! NOT a noun, as "the rapture" would have to be! In fact, ἀρπαγμος would be the noun, and it only appears in Phil. 2:6, where it is difficult to translate. But probably something to do with grasped to his own advantage. So, the Bible does not use the noun, which some want to translate as "The Rapture." In fact, the word does not appear at all in the Septuagint, and the occurrence in Phil 2:6 is not connected to end times at all, but rather is about Jesus and his first coming. I did not find one version that was able to translate this satisfactorily. Here is the NET!

"who though he existed in the form of God
did not regard equality with God
as something to be grasped," Phil. 2:6 NET

"Who, being in the form of God, thought it not robbery to be equal with God:" Phil. 2:6 KJV[FONT=&quot]
[/FONT]

Certainly, BDAG is correct when it says the KJV cannot be right! Because, "the state of being equal with God cannot be equated with the act of robbery." (pg 133)

ἀρπάζω or harpazo is the verb, which appears in 1 Thess. 4:17. It means grasp or seize, in the sense that no resistance is offered.

But, for arguments sake, even if harpzo really said "rapture" which it doesn't, you can NEVER make a doctrine out of one verse! Hermeneutically, that is unsound.

So, no, dispensationalism does not take the Bible literally. In fact, it adds a bunch of things that are NOT in the Bible at all! And that means the rapture!

So, not literal because the word "rapture" upon which the entire eschatology of dispensationalism is based, is not in the Bible, so, it is NOT literal.

PS. I am a partial
preterist!
 

FlSnookman7

Senior Member
Jun 27, 2015
1,125
135
63
#46
The whole underpinning of dispensationalism are the bolded parts. If you prove them wrong, I guess the whole silly thing falls apart.

So, you want a LITERAL interpretation of the Bible, which includes a rapture!

"Then we who are alive, who are left, will be suddenly caught up together with them in the clouds to meet the Lord in the air. And so we will always be with the Lord." 1 Thess. 4:17 NET

Note that the ones who are LEFT, will be the ones who greet the Lord, not the ones who are "gone" or "raptured."

I have searched high and low, and the word "rapture" is not in any Bible translation I have read, nor Greek or Hebrew. In fact, it was one of Jerome's many mistakes in the Latin Vulgate, when he transliterated 1 Thess. 4:17 from Greek to Latin. Notice, not translate, but transliterate. That means taking a word in another language, which he didn't know, and putting it in the translation by sounds.

So, here is the Greek:


"ἔπειτα ἡμεῖς οἱ ζῶντες οἱ περιλειπόμενοι ἅμα σὺν αὐτοῖς ἁρπαγησόμεθα ἐν νεφέλαις εἰς ἀπάντησιν τοῦ κυρίου εἰς ἀέρα· καὶ οὕτως πάντοτε σὺν κυρίῳ ἐσόμεθα." 1 Thess. 4:17

And here is the Latin:

"deinde nos qui vivimus qui relinquimur simul rapiemur cum illis in nubibus obviam Domino in aera et sic semper cum Domino erimus" 1 Thess. 4:17

Now, I am not 100% sure, but I think that
rapiemur, might be the transliteration for ἁρπαγησόμεθα! And I have no intention of ever learning Latin, and yet, that is what Erasmus used for his translation, and hence the KJV comes from this. Since, they basically used Erasmus' translation.

ἁρπαγησόμεθα is a future indicative passive verb in Greek! NOT a noun, as "the rapture" would have to be! In fact, ἀρπαγμος would be the noun, and it only appears in Phil. 2:6, where it is difficult to translate. But probably something to do with grasped to his own advantage. So, the Bible does not use the noun, which some want to translate as "The Rapture." In fact, the word does not appear at all in the Septuagint, and the occurrence in Phil 2:6 is not connected to end times at all, but rather is about Jesus and his first coming. I did not find one version that was able to translate this satisfactorily. Here is the NET!

"who though he existed in the form of God
did not regard equality with God
as something to be grasped," Phil. 2:6 NET

"Who, being in the form of God, thought it not robbery to be equal with God:" Phil. 2:6 KJV

Certainly, BDAG is correct when it says the KJV cannot be right! Because, "the state of being equal with God cannot be equated with the act of robbery." (pg 133)

ἀρπάζω or harpazo is the verb, which appears in 1 Thess. 4:17. It means grasp or seize, in the sense that no resistance is offered.

But, for arguments sake, even if harpzo really said "rapture" which it doesn't, you can NEVER make a doctrine out of one verse! Hermeneutically, that is unsound.

So, no, dispensationalism does not take the Bible literally. In fact, it adds a bunch of things that are NOT in the Bible at all! And that means the rapture!

So, not literal because the word "rapture" upon which the entire eschatology of dispensationalism is based, is not in the Bible, so, it is NOT literal.

PS. I am a partial
preterist!
That list was from carm I am curious about people's opinions because I am trying to see what doctrine fits what I believe. I thank you for the response.
 

maxwel

Senior Member
Apr 18, 2013
9,526
2,608
113
#47
I have to look at any thread with the phrase "death knell" in it.

So perilous sounding.



I don't have anything so serious to discuss, but I'm going to start a thread about "regular, common knells".



My first thread is going to be, "The regular knell for "Calvinism."
 
7

7seasrekeyed

Guest
#48
Adam Clarke was a Methodist so that makes his eschatology a-millennial, which is pretty much the same as the Reformed, RC and Orthodox churches among others.

What he's written is exactly what Paul stated in Gal 4:30 that the persecuting Jews would be cast out, which is precisely what happened in the war of 66-70 AD so your beef is with Paul and Christ and Isaiah.


1 Th 2:16 Forbidding us to speak to the Gentiles that they might be saved, to fill up their sins alway: for the wrath is come upon them to the uttermost.

Mat 23:31 Wherefore ye be witnesses unto yourselves, that ye are the children of them which killed the prophets.

Mat 23:32
Fill ye up then the measure of your fathers.

Mat 23:33
Ye serpents, ye generation of vipers, how can ye escape the damnation of hell?

Isa 65:15 And ye shall leave your name for a curse unto my chosen:
for the Lord GOD shall slay thee, and call his servants by another name:

and he hated Jews, common to his day, which colored what he wrote

much as your Preterist viewpoint does yours

nothing to see here really

just more of your Preterism prattle
 

Locutus

Senior Member
Feb 10, 2017
5,928
685
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#49
No prattle here - straight scripture, if you don't like those scriptures you can just disregard them and continue in your dispensational daydream...


Like I said to you before, heckling is not a valid rebuttal.
 

iamsoandso

Senior Member
Oct 6, 2011
8,048
1,609
113
#50
Gal 4:22 For it is written that Abraham had two sons, one by the bondwoman and one by the free woman.

Gal 4:23 But the son by the bondwoman was born according to the flesh, and the son by the free woman through the promise.

Gal 4:24 This is allegorically speaking, for these women are two covenants: one proceeding from Mount Sinai bearing children who are to be slaves; she is Hagar.

Gal 4:25 Now this Hagar is Mount Sinai in Arabia and corresponds to the present Jerusalem, for she is in slavery with her children.

Gal 4:26 But the Jerusalem above is free; she is our mother
.
.
Gal 4:28 And you brethren, like Isaac, are children of promise.
.
.
Gal 4:30 But what does the Scripture say? “CAST OUT THE BONDWOMAN AND HER SON, FOR THE SON OF THE BONDWOMAN SHALL NOT BE AN HEIR WITH THE SON OF THE FREE WOMAN.
Your missing the point,,,Abraham had "TWO SONS",,, in which it states there are "TWO= COVENANTS", in your approach you are convinced there is only "one"... and somehow you are convinced it is a death knell? read it again........
 

Magenta

Senior Member
Jul 3, 2015
58,662
28,048
113
#51
Thank you everyone for the input. A few more questions... can anyone let me know if Abraham's slave child was the forefather of islam? Again, I appreciate all the responses, thank you?
Mohammed considers Ismael his forefather, yes.

Now these are the generations of Ishmael, Abraham's son, whom Hagar the Egyptian, Sarah's handmaid, bore unto Abraham. And these are the names of the sons of Ishmael, by their names, according to their generations: the first-born of Ishmael, Nebaioth; and Kedar, and Adbeel, and Mibsam, and Mishma, and Dumah, and Massa; 15 Hadad, and Tema, Jetur, Naphish, and Kedem; these are the sons of Ishmael, and these are their names, by their villages, and by their encampments; twelve princes according to their nations... (Genesis 25:12-16)

Muslim sources trace the genealogy of Muhammed to Kedar, and though it is much disputed by other sources, it is this claim that leads the Islamist to substitute Isaac as the child of promise with Ishmael, and for Muhammad to make the claim that he is the prophet the world was awaiting (the final prophet), and the Quran the final revelation from God. They call Abraham the first Muslim.
 

Locutus

Senior Member
Feb 10, 2017
5,928
685
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#52
Your missing the point,,,Abraham had "TWO SONS",,, in which it states there are "TWO= COVENANTS", in your approach you are convinced there is only "one"... and somehow you are convinced it is a death knell? read it again........
I don't need to read it again - your point is?
 

SovereignGrace

Senior Member
Dec 28, 2016
5,455
236
63
#53
Really? How is this?

do you have any actual proof. Or just an ad hominem attack?

Its not an ad hominem attack, just fact. God has always dealt with His ppl through covenants. There's the Adamic, Noahic, Abrahamic, Mosaic, and Davidic, just to name a few. We are in the Grace covenant now.
 

SovereignGrace

Senior Member
Dec 28, 2016
5,455
236
63
#54
true, but Isreal is the natural branch, gentiles are the unnatural branch. They are still deemed as different entities. In romans 11 that is.
But both are in the same Vine, this Vine being the Christ. There's not two bodies of believers, just one, and this body consists of both believing Jews and Gentiles.
 

SovereignGrace

Senior Member
Dec 28, 2016
5,455
236
63
#55
I have to look at any thread with the phrase "death knell" in it.

So perilous sounding.



I don't have anything so serious to discuss, but I'm going to start a thread about "regular, common knells".



My first thread is going to be, "The regular knell for "Calvinism."
Regular? Srsly? I am environmentally considerate, so you best make a thread about unleaded Calvinist knells. You don't care one iota about our environment it seems. ;) :eek:
 
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7seasrekeyed

Guest
#57
Your missing the point,,,Abraham had "TWO SONS",,, in which it states there are "TWO= COVENANTS", in your approach you are convinced there is only "one"... and somehow you are convinced it is a death knell? read it again........

my point exactly

locutus picks commentators that support the Preterist viewpoint and disregards scripture that contradicts those people

this fellow Clark, that he is quoting, lived in the 1700's, a time when hating Jews was popular

if you read the quote I posted from Clark, his hatred and disregard for Jews is actually pointed and disgusting, my post #40

here is a sentence from Clark's comments:


The inspired writers excepted, the Jews have ever been the most puerile, absurd, and ridiculous reasoners in the world

so Clark, in his mentality of the day (and apparently still to be found today as well, but Christians should know better) says ALL Jews ...except for the ones who wrote the Bible...so magnanimous of him...are not only puerile, absurd and ridiculous, BUT the worst 'reasoners' in the entire world (Clarks world )

now somebody tell me, when there are many preterists around whose comments are non-inclusive of such personal diatribes against an entire race of people, does the op continually pick any and all (note dead guys who had a hate on for Jews) who sport hatred for the authors of scripture and seem to forget that John indicates that Jesus came to His own..who were not white blue-eyed Gentiles.
 
7

7seasrekeyed

Guest
#58
I don't need to read it again - your point is?
his point is the same one I have been making

you do not seem to have any concept of what scripture is talking about with regards to the bondwoman and freewoman or how that relates to salvation

I know you think you do and you agree with Clark whose writing style is not inspired by the Holy Spirit and who has no concept of the two women either

further, you should acknowledge the fact that Clark was religious...not a spiritual man at all...and wrote reams of propaganda against Jews and purposefully catered to an ignorant audience

I don't expect you to veer from your present course
 
7

7seasrekeyed

Guest
#59
No prattle here - straight scripture, if you don't like those scriptures you can just disregard them and continue in your dispensational daydream...


Like I said to you before, heckling is not a valid rebuttal.
and all the Preterists said amen :rolleyes:

straight scripture a la Clark..I don't have his gospel in any Bible I have and that includes the ones online which is pretty much ALL of them

you are only fooling yourself

I have seen some good posts by Preterists in which they actually have something valid to say that a person might consider

but you don't do that. you supply commentary by someone who is a rabid despiser of Jews

too bad you either cannot see that or choose to ignore it
 
E

eternally-gratefull

Guest
#60
please don't consider writing a commentary

ever
please do not get into debates with anyone, with responses like his you will be laughed out of the debate. Now if you ever want to talk about what I said, let me know, otherwise I will just understand you have nothing.. and let you be.