Is YOUR church doctrinal statement ONE with SATAN?

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ChosenbyHim

Senior Member
Sep 19, 2011
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#41
false and this is a weak video trash.
Did you actually watch the video, CS1?

Or are you just judging a matter before you hear it (Proverbs 18:13) like a lot of Christians on here do, when it comes to this very important subject of the King James Holy Bible.
 

ChosenbyHim

Senior Member
Sep 19, 2011
3,280
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#42
Can’t even be bothered watching the video 😬
Of course, you could not. Since you could not be bothered by being corrected and reproved by the truth in it. You are a like a lot of modern Christians today, who answer a matter before they actually hear it.
 

ChosenbyHim

Senior Member
Sep 19, 2011
3,280
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#43
I don't need to watch the video to see that the title is silly. A document is not a spiritual entity, and vice versa; end of discussion.
A document and a statement of faith and ideology can be satanic if it contains the very mindset and agenda which Satan has always had, even from the very beginning, which can be summed up to the very first part of his question to Eve: "Yea, Hath God Said....?"
 

ChosenbyHim

Senior Member
Sep 19, 2011
3,280
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#44
You should watch it though. It will really help you. And it surely will humble you, that is for sure!

I understand that taking correction is not easy, but as a Christian you have to eventually get to the point where you are willing to grow up, and mature in Christ Jesus and His holy word.
 

Dino246

Senior Member
Jun 30, 2015
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#45
A document and a statement of faith and ideology can be satanic if it contains the very mindset and agenda which Satan has always had, even from the very beginning, which can be summed up to the very first part of his question to Eve: "Yea, Hath God Said....?"
Yes, and? It still doesn't make a doctrinal statement "one with satan". My point stands: the title is silly.
 

ChosenbyHim

Senior Member
Sep 19, 2011
3,280
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#46
I wasted 3 min 7 secs.
A statement like this only shows your pride and arrogant attitude when it comes to this very important subject of the blessed word of God.

Bede, you ought to be ashamed of yourself for posting such a response.
 

Dino246

Senior Member
Jun 30, 2015
16,668
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#47
Of course, you could not. Since you could not be bothered by being corrected and reproved by the truth in it. You are a like a lot of modern Christians today, who answer a matter before they actually hear it.
Does your self-righteous arrogance know any bounds?
 

ChosenbyHim

Senior Member
Sep 19, 2011
3,280
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#50
Help me out someone.

Are these two guys saying that the 1611 KJV is the original (even though the original writings were in Hebrew, Greek and Aramaic) hundreds of years before the English of 1611?

What I believe they are saying is that the 1611 KJV is the very Text from the Original Autographs since it is the very words which God said in the original autographs of Hebrew, Aramaic, and Greek, preserved and translated into the English tongue and language.

This is the main point also of the video: Reproving the double speak (YES & NO) statements made by many Christians and many churches today regarding the Bible and its Inspiration. Consider these following examples, which brother G. Jon Rov gives regarding this very subject:


YES Statement: "We Believe in the verbal inspiration of the Scriptures without mistakes
NO Statement: As far as in the original writings, and autographs."

- Contemporary Church (Doctrinal Statement)


YES Statement: "Yea,
NO Statement: Hath God said...?"


- Satan (Gen. 3:1)


Furthermore, the following which G. Jon Rov states in his book is very accurate, precise and spot on:

"Plainly speaking, the thought that God has not finished a specific Bible is an upside-down thought. The thought that God's original manuscripts are of greater value than His finished manuscripts is also an upside-down thought. Because "the carnal mind is enmity against God (Rom. 8:7)," there is a hostility from the start to the very thought that God has finished a Bible, especially the King James Bible as the very one."


Now Let us consider another example from brother G. Jon Rov:

FOUNDATION of the Christian: God has written the Bible
FOUNDATION of the Unbeliever: God has NOT written the Bible (Upside Down Foundation)


FOUNDATION of the King James Bible believing (KJB) Christian: God has written the Bible. It is the King James Bible: God has gathered the books, ordered the books, divided the chapters, divided the verses, numbered the verses, chosen the words, chosen the letters. God has finished the line of the Bible and it is the King James Bible.


FOUNDATION of today's Christian: God has not written the King James Bible. God has likely chosen the books, but God has not ordered them. God certainly has not divided the chapters and verses, the numbers mean nothing but handiness, and God definitely has not chosen the words in English and especially not the letters in English, because there is no specific Bible today that is God's Authorized Bible. There is no perfect Bible. Every Bible contains mistakes. Why is my profession of "faith" sounding more like the "unbeliever" the more I speak??? (Upside Down Foundation)
 

John146

Senior Member
Jan 13, 2016
11,726
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#51
People not only MUST learn English to know what God has said but they must also learn an archaic form of it.
God makes it difficult for us, doesn't He?
I sure am glad we don't have the "originals." It would be very difficult to learn Hebrew and Greek. I'm so thankful He preserved His words in English. Other languages? I'm not sure. He never promised to preserve His words in many languages, only that His words would be preserved.
 

John146

Senior Member
Jan 13, 2016
11,726
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#53
FOUNDATION of today's Christian: God has not written the King James Bible. God has likely chosen the books, but God has not ordered them. God certainly has not divided the chapters and verses, the numbers mean nothing but handiness, and God definitely has not chosen the words in English and especially not the letters in English, because there is no specific Bible today that is God's Authorized Bible. There is no perfect Bible. Every Bible contains mistakes. Why is my profession of "faith" sounding more like the "unbeliever" the more I speak??? (Upside Down Foundation)
I would guess the average Joe seated in church has no clue. Whatever their preacher says is the truth. They’ll sit there while the preacher wows them with his knowledge of Greek.🤦‍♂️
 

acts5_29

Active member
Apr 17, 2020
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#54
Three pages of thread to talk about how this video is not worth watching.
:D
 

John146

Senior Member
Jan 13, 2016
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#55
We believe in the absolute authority of the holy scriptures. We believe the original manuscripts were given by inspiration of God and were without error. We believe the God who gave His word to man has taken upon Himself the responsibility for its preservation. We believe the incorruptible word of God which cannot pass away is available to the English-speaking world in the Authorized (King James) Version. This Bible is our final authority in all matters.
 

crossnote

Senior Member
Nov 24, 2012
29,027
2,825
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#56
What I believe they are saying is that the 1611 KJV is the very Text from the Original Autographs since it is the very words which God said in the original autographs of Hebrew, Aramaic, and Greek, preserved and translated into the English tongue and language.
How is that so since all we have is early fragments from around 100 AD and later copies of early manuscripts (200-600 AD). Only comparing these manuscripts can we come up with an accurate representation of the originals. This is all all due to the fact that the ORIGINAL AUTOGRAPHS DO NOT EXIST.
 

posthuman

Senior Member
Jul 31, 2013
30,065
9,697
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#59
And yes, you can prove a negative if it contradicts itself
absolutely right

let X be a statement, and ¬X be its negation, 'not X'

you can prove ¬X by exhaustively listing every instance of X and showing ¬X in each one
you can prove ¬X by induction, showing ¬X is true in one instance and also that, given ¬X is true in any arbitrary instance it must be also true in the next.
you can prove ¬X by assuming X is true and showing that the assumptions of X imply ¬X
you can prove ¬X by showing it follows from axioms
you can prove ¬X by finding a concrete example of X being false.


for example :)
 

breno785au

Senior Member
Jul 23, 2013
5,912
706
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Australia
#60
absolutely right

let X be a statement, and ¬X be its negation, 'not X'

you can prove ¬X by exhaustively listing every instance of X and showing ¬X in each one
you can prove ¬X by induction, showing ¬X is true in one instance and also that, given ¬X is true in any arbitrary instance it must be also true in the next.
you can prove ¬X by assuming X is true and showing that the assumptions of X imply ¬X
you can prove ¬X by showing it follows from axioms
you can prove ¬X by finding a concrete example of X being false.



for example :)
Makes sense.........