King James Bible ONLY? Or NOT?

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limey410

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He died in the day he ate just like God said he would.
But the context in which Peter is speaking is that of the perceived delay of the return. Not of events that happened in the garden.
 

Sagart

Senior Member
May 7, 2017
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I agree. I would also add that he did not mention the triune God - elohim in Hebrew or elanah in Aramaic. Nebuchadnezzar spoke of elah - one god which woud be the head god of his gods. He is not talking about the triune God of Daniel - elahin.
In Daniel 3:25, Nebuchadnezzar spoke only of the gods that he spoke of using the plural form of the Aramaic word for god, ’ĕlāhîn—that is, the Babylonian gods.

I agree that God did not put his words in Daniels mouth in Daniel 2:47. So now let's look at Daniel 3:25.

Daniel 3:25 KJV
He answered and said, Lo, I see four men loose, walking in the midst of the fire, and they have no hurt; and the form of the fourth is like the Son of God [elahin].

If Nebuchadnezzar was speaking of the gods he would use elahin, my question to you is what Aramaic word would he use for the triune God - Elohim?
In Daniel 2:47, we find אֱלָהֲכ֗וֹן (’ĕ·lāhăḵōwn [your god]) which is singular; אֱלָ֧הּ (’ĕlāh [a god]) which is also singular; and אֱלָהִ֛ין (’ĕlāhîn [gods]) which is plural. Therefore, the KJV translates Dan. 3:25 incorrectly, but translates Dan. 3:47 correctly.

Daniel 3:25. He said, “Look! I see four men loosed and walking about in the midst of the fire without harm, and the appearance of the fourth is like a son of the gods!’ (NASB, 1995)

The Hebrew people were staunchly monotheistic, and Nebuchadnezzar would certainly have been aware of this. Therefore, he would have used the singular form of the Aramaic word for God for a triune God. However, he used the plural form of the Aramaic word for God because he was referring to the Babylonian Gods. Furthermore, the Hebrew people themselves did not believe in a triune God, and such a concept is never found in the Old Testament. The closest thing to such a concept in the Old Testament is found in Isaiah 48:16,

16. Come ye near unto me, hear ye this; from the beginning I have not spoken in secret; from the time that it was, there am I: and now the Lord Jehovah hath sent me, and his Spirit. (ASV)

However, the context of this verse shows that the pronoun “me” is referring to Cyrus*, who it is prophesied will conquer Babylon—a prophesy that was fulfilled! However, some Old Testament scholars believe that Cyrus is here a type of Christ.

*Isaiah 45:1. Thus saith Jehovah to his anointed, to Cyrus, whose right hand I have holden, to subdue nations before him, and I will loose the loins of kings; to open the doors before him, and the gates shall not be shut:
2. I will go before thee, and make the rough places smooth; I will break in pieces the doors of brass, and cut in sunder the bars of iron;
3. and I will give thee the treasures of darkness, and hidden riches of secret places, that thou mayest know that it is I, Jehovah, who call thee by thy name, even the God of Israel.
(ASV)
 

Sagart

Senior Member
May 7, 2017
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Why do you insist that the Wesott and Hort re-write of the KJV is STILL the KJV?
The English version known today as the American Standard Version is the American Edition of what is known today as the English Revised Version—an official (by both houses of the Convocation of the Province of Canterbury) revision of the KJV. It is not “the Wesott and Hort re-write of the KJV,” and to refer to it in such a manner is a typical example of the extremely dishonest and sinful behavior of the KJO movement that is disgracing the Bible and bringing it into disrepute. The spiritual forces behind this movement are the principalities, and powers, and the rulers of the darkness of this world, spiritual wickedness in high places—the very purpose of which is to discourage people from reading the Bible in a translation that they can understand, thus impeding them from coming to Christ and growing in their Christian faith.
 
Nov 23, 2013
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How do you know? Have you compared the original and your kjv word by word?
No I haven't but every time I've checked it has matched exceptt in the places where you brought up in your later post. I will talk abut them when I get to that post.
 
Nov 23, 2013
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Well, we believe the Word of God is just that. I enjoy it in several versions and so do many others. They are all the Word of God, and they don't have to have the same exact words, they all teach the same doctrine. Sadly, the KJV has added things to Scripture that weren't in many mss.
I agree they don't have to have the same words but the words have to be the RIGHT words. I also agree that they all contain SOME of the word of God mixed in with errors except the KJV.

No, he didn't die physically that same day. He died physically years later, he died spiritually at the moment he ate. ANd your hermeneutic is inconsistent, literalism is blinding your mind to spiritual truths.
In your view no he didn't die in the same day because you won't acknowledge that the bible speaks of two different days. Instead you make up a concept called spiritual death which doesn't exist.

This verse isn't speaking of the time in the garden. Peter is making a point about the LORD's patience for His elect. Notice it says "as" not "is." It's figurative speech, not literal.
I agree, but Peter was referencing Psalm 90:4 which is not making a point about the Lord's patience for his elect.

Psalm 90:4 KJV
For a thousand years in thy sight are but as yesterday when it is past, and as a watch in the night.

Utterly ridiculous nonsense. God is aging really really fast bro. ;)

Hopefully you can see how absurd your beliefs are, or, KJVO has done so much indoctrinating you cannot see it.
I believe the word, I don't make things up. There are two timelines in the bible - man's timeline and God's timeline... that's how God hides the good things from those who wont believe the bible.


Then you don't believe the NT theology of the Holy Spirit via Paul and others. KJVO will do that to you, it is that deceptive.
Yes I believe in the Holy Spirit.
 
Nov 23, 2013
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Okay, I understand your point now. I think there is still a distinction, because "original language proponents" as you classify them do not make any claim to worshiping the words, and I suspect most would reject that notion. I certainly reject it. I worship the triune God, manifest in Jesus, not the words of the Bible, whether they be original, manuscript, printed version, or translation. They are "theopneustos" as distinct from "theos".
I'm glad you're secure in your belief! I can tell you have a good heart and love the Lord.
 

Sagart

Senior Member
May 7, 2017
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That's misleading, insinuating that the 1611 version says something different than the KJV I read today. It says exactly the same thing.

The words in 1611
The 1611 KJV says,

2 Chron. 33:19. His prayer also, and how God was intreated of him, and all his sinne, and his trespasse, and the places wherein he built high places, and set vp groues and grauen images before hee was humbled: behold, they are written among the sayings of the Seers.

But my Oxford KJV printed at the Oxford University Press says,

2 Chron. 33:19. His prayer also, and how God was intreated of him, and all his sins, and his trespass, and the places wherein he built high places, and set up groves and graven images, before he was humbled: behold, they are written among the sayings of the seers.


The 1611 KJV says,

Nahum 3:16. Thou hast multiplied thy merchants aboue the starres of heauen; the cankerworme spoileth & flieth away.

But my Oxford KJV printed at the Oxford University Press says,

Nahum 3:16. Thou hast multiplied thy merchants above the stars of heaven: the cankerworm spoileth, and fleeth away.


The 1611 KJV says,

Jer. 34:16. But yee turned and polluted my Name, and caused euery man his seruant, and euery man his handmaide, whome yee had set at libertie at their pleasure, to returne; and brought them into subiection, to bee vnto you for seruants and for handmaids.

But my Oxford KJV printed at the Oxford University Press says,

Jer. 34:16. But ye turned and polluted my name, and caused every man his servant, and every man his handmaid, whom he had set at liberty at their pleasure, to return, and brought them into subjection, to be unto you for servants and for handmaids.
 

Dino246

Senior Member
Jun 30, 2015
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I will comment on the rest after this. The point you made above is where we will probably have irreconcilable difference due to my belief that every word in the bible is right.

Those verses don't say Adam died spiritual, it says in the DAY he eats he will surely die and he did die in the very day he ate the fruit.... physically died.

2 Peter: 3. 8. But, beloved, be not ignorant of this one thing, that one day is with the Lord as a thousand years, and a thousand years as one day. - Bible Offline

This is poetry or "spiritual" talk and does not really mean what it says. I believe it exactly as it is written, 1 day with God is exactly to the minute 1000 years. Many places all over the bible that refer to this.

I don't believe Adam or anybody else's spirit is dead.
There are several problems with this theory. Firstly, there is no indication that Peter's words are poetic. Given that he says, "do not be ignorant of this one thing", it would seem that he is talking facts, not "spiritual language". The NASB actually uses the word "fact" there.

Secondly, the fact that the statement is presented both ways negates applying just half of it to Adam's situation. In other words, you can't have it both ways.

Thirdly, this is talking about God, not mankind. Fourthly, this is talking about God's patience, not about any part of our life.

Fifthly, this is a metaphor, a comparison which, in this case, uses "as" to relate one concept to another, without saying that one thing is actually another thing.

Sixthly, this kind of reasoning undermines every use of "day" in the Bible... including the ones in Genesis 1 and Exodus 20.
 

preacher4truth

Senior Member
Dec 28, 2016
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The 1611 KJV says,

2 Chron. 33:19. His prayer also, and how God was intreated of him, and all his sinne, and his trespasse, and the places wherein he built high places, and set vp groues and grauen images before hee was humbled: behold, they are written among the sayings of the Seers.

But my Oxford KJV printed at the Oxford University Press says,

2 Chron. 33:19. His prayer also, and how God was intreated of him, and all his sins, and his trespass, and the places wherein he built high places, and set up groves and graven images, before he was humbled: behold, they are written among the sayings of the seers.


The 1611 KJV says,

Nahum 3:16. Thou hast multiplied thy merchants aboue the starres of heauen; the cankerworme spoileth & flieth away.

But my Oxford KJV printed at the Oxford University Press says,

Nahum 3:16. Thou hast multiplied thy merchants above the stars of heaven: the cankerworm spoileth, and fleeth away.


The 1611 KJV says,

Jer. 34:16. But yee turned and polluted my Name, and caused euery man his seruant, and euery man his handmaide, whome yee had set at libertie at their pleasure, to returne; and brought them into subiection, to bee vnto you for seruants and for handmaids.

But my Oxford KJV printed at the Oxford University Press says,

Jer. 34:16. But ye turned and polluted my name, and caused every man his servant, and every man his handmaid, whom he had set at liberty at their pleasure, to return, and brought them into subjection, to be unto you for servants and for handmaids.
I think part of the issue is that they cannot see what contradictions are there. Concession to these would devastate their faith because their faith is in ink printed on paper.

Therefore they become purposefully impenetrable, they indoctrinate one another with their sectarianism, their faith is in jeopardy if they concede to translational errors and KJV error.

I'll put it like this: If proof were given that showed the KJV to have errors, contradictions, errant translation, they would unfortunately crumble concerning their faith. I know there are already those proofs, but I am simply illustrating their position. They must take the position because again their faith would crumble and they wouldn't know how to recover, so they hang on to 1611ism. Not Christ. It is 1611ism they are hanging on to. (not that they aren't born again, I am not saying that).
 

John146

Senior Member
Jan 13, 2016
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The English version known today as the American Standard Version is the American Edition of what is known today as the English Revised Version—an official (by both houses of the Convocation of the Province of Canterbury) revision of the KJV. It is not “the Wesott and Hort re-write of the KJV,” and to refer to it in such a manner is a typical example of the extremely dishonest and sinful behavior of the KJO movement that is disgracing the Bible and bringing it into disrepute. The spiritual forces behind this movement are the principalities, and powers, and the rulers of the darkness of this world, spiritual wickedness in high places—the very purpose of which is to discourage people from reading the Bible in a translation that they can understand, thus impeding them from coming to Christ and growing in their Christian faith.
If one has trouble "understanding" the KJV, the problem is with the individual and not with God's word. One problem is that people do not grow up reading and studying the word of God like days past. The believer has been commanded to study the word of God precept upon precept, line by line, precept upon precept, line upon line. Any effort to try and make God's word "easier" to read always ends up corrupting the text. Instead of changing God's word we should try reading and studying it more asking for the Holy Spirit's guidance. People live such busy lives today that they are always looking for the easy way out.

2 Timothy 2:15 Study to shew thyself approved unto God, a workman that needeth not to be ashamed, rightly dividing the word of truth.

Psalm 119:18 Open thou mine eyes, that I may behold wondrous things out of thy law.
 
Apr 23, 2017
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i can prove kjv isnt perfect translation here sheol hades and tartarus three different words all translated one word hell.............
 

graceNpeace

Senior Member
Aug 12, 2016
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... Any effort to try and make God's word "easier" to read always ends up corrupting the text...
Hung by your own stupidity!
By this logic you should not be using an "English" translation at all but only the Hebrew, Greek and Aramaic!

Honestly, get a grip.
 
Nov 23, 2013
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Error 1

11 Behold, the Arke of the Couenant, euen the Lord of all the earth, passeth ouer before you, into Iordan.
11 Behold, the ark of the covenant of the Lord of all the earth passeth over before you into Jordan.

The KJV translators made a typo or translated it wrong and later versions corrected it or the KJV translators got it right and it was wrongly changed later. I think the original is right because I had already gleaned from the KJV I read that the ark of the covenant was the presence of God. I have never argued that there weren't typos, spelling changes and varitions from the original Greek or Hebrew.

My point is that both verses say exactly the same thing as far as the word of God goes. The message of that verse is - the ark of the covenant passes over first. The 1611 version gives more insight than the later version.
 

preacher4truth

Senior Member
Dec 28, 2016
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Any effort to try and make God's word "easier" to read always ends up corrupting the text.
Modern versions are better than the KJV. They are also for the most part easier to read which is a good thing seeing we don't speak that form of English any longer. If the queens English were so much easier to read it would still be used to this day in everything, because people always want easier to assist them in their learning endeavors.

The KJV is "corrupted" because it has added things to the Scriptures which were not in the mss. Thus we have better versions of Scripture today; NASB, NASBU, ESV, CSB, HCSB, NIV &c.
 

SovereignGrace

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Dec 28, 2016
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I base my beliefs on what the bible ACTUALLY SAYS, not what I think it should say. Your opinion is Nebuchadnezzar was a pagan therefor he would have... Balaam's ass was an ass therfor he should have said hee haw.

It amazes me that people believe that God spoke through an ass but he couldn't speak through Nebuchadnezzar to show that God is with us in our trials.
This is what the bible actually says...




בְּרֵאשִׁית בָּרָא אֱלֹהִים אֵת הַשָּׁמַיִם וְאֵת הָאָרֶץ׃


אַשְׁרֵי־הָאִישׁ אֲשֶׁר לֹא הָלַךְ בַּעֲצַת רְשָׁעִים וּבְדֶרֶךְ חַטָּאִים לֹא
 

tourist

Senior Member
Mar 13, 2014
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Tennessee
This is what the bible actually says...




בְּרֵאשִׁית בָּרָא אֱלֹהִים אֵת הַשָּׁמַיִם וְאֵת הָאָרֶץ׃


אַשְׁרֵי־הָאִישׁ אֲשֶׁר לֹא הָלַךְ בַּעֲצַת רְשָׁעִים וּבְדֶרֶךְ חַטָּאִים לֹא
It's all Greek to me.
 

SovereignGrace

Senior Member
Dec 28, 2016
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I think the issue is where the worship is directed. Oddly, I worship the spirit of the words while others seem to worship the original written text, not the spirit of that text, but the actual text itself. In my opinion that's idol worship. And worshipping a SELF MADE idol at that.
Wrong. You said you were not born again until you read the KJV. You said you were saved, but not born again until you read the KJV. IOW, the Christ only works through that translation. So, many who don't know a lick of English will die eternally lost. That's idol-worship if ever I saw it.
 

SovereignGrace

Senior Member
Dec 28, 2016
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Should not you sell everything you have and buy one?

If it is so important to you, why do you use some corrupted revision of later date?
Wait. The revisions are always better. Remember, the KJV was the 7th and 7 means completion. So, the 1769 was a revision of the 1611. So, either the 1611 is the completion, or the 1769 is a better version. Either way, the KJVOnlyists have themselves quite the conundrum. Either the 1611 is the word of God for English speaking folk, or the 1769 is better than the 1611, seeing it is a revision. Which is it?