No, If I am understanding you correctly, 1 Peter 4:1 is not talking about suffering in the flesh as in reference to struggling with sin while confessing it; And neither does it have anything to to do with 1 John 1:9, either. Nowhere in 1 Peter 4:1 even remotely suggests such a thing. Actually, lets look at what the chapter says and see if we can get the real context of 1 Peter 4:1.
1 Peter 4:1-4 KJV
"Forasmuch then as Christ hath suffered for us in the flesh, arm yourselves likewise with the same mind: for he that hath suffered in the flesh hath ceased from sin; That he no longer should live the rest of his time in the flesh to the lusts of men, but to the will of God. For the time past of our life may suffice us to have wrought the will of the Gentiles, when we walked in lasciviousness, lusts, excess of wine, revellings, banquetings, and abominable idolatries: Wherein they think it strange that ye run not with them to the same excess of riot, speaking evil of you:"
Okay, let's break this down.
He that suffered in the flesh has ceased from sin (is based on the context of):
1. As Christ has suffered in the flesh, arm yourselves with the same mind.
2. That he no longer should live the rest of his time in the lust of the flesh of men, but to God's will.
3. In our past life we walked in lusts, and various sins.
4. Wherein they (Unbelievers) think it strange that we do not run in the same excess of riot.
1. Jesus suffered in the flesh and was sinless. We are to have the same mind and suffer as he suffered. So this cannot be talking about how we are suffering in our sin because Jesus never once sinned.
2. Ceasing from sin as mentioned in verse 1 is in view of not living the rest of our time in the lust of the flesh of men, but to the will of God.
3. For the believer ceased in sin is in contrast to their old life whereby they walked in their lusts and various sins.
4. Unbelievers will find it strange that we do not run in the same excess of riot of sin that they do. So committing sin is in contrast to ceasing from sin.
And if that is not good enough for you, then.... lets keep reading.
1 Peter 4:17-19 KJV
"For the time is come that judgment must begin at the house of God: and if it first begin at us, what shall the end be of them that obey not the gospel of God? And if the righteous scarcely be saved, where shall the ungodly and the sinner appear? Wherefore let them that suffer according to the will of God commit the keeping of their souls to him in well doing, as unto a faithful Creator."
Okay, what does this passage say?
1. Judgement begins at the house of God.
2. What is the end to those who obey not the gospel?
3. If the righteous
scarcely be saved, then where shall the ungodly and sinner appear?
4. Therefore, let them suffer according to God's will keeping their souls in "
well doing."
1. Judgement begins at the house of God. So if 1 Peter 4:1 is in view of suffering as per confessing sin 1 John 1:9, how does the Judgment of the house of God come into play? The short answer is that it doesn't. Those who do evil in God's Kingdom will be removed. For the Scriptures say, "The Son of man shall send forth his angels, and they shall gather out of his kingdom all things that offend, and them which do iniquity."
2. What is the end of those who obey not the gospel? Here the gospel is tied to the word "obey" and not "believe." Why? Because the gospel includes repentance and or turning from evil or sin. How do we know repentance is involved in the gospel. Well, the first words Jesus said as a part of ministry was... "repent"; And Jesus defines repentance for us. He says the Ninevites will rise up in Judgment against this generation because they repented at the preaching of Jonah. Now, if we were to turn to chapter 3 in the book of Jonah we would see that the Ninevites had turned from their wicked ways as a part of their repentance. So those who do not obey the gospel are those who are not turning completely from their wicked ways. This would be in view of "cease from sin."
3. If the righteous scarcely be saved, then where should the ungodly and sinner appear? It's a question and the entire chapter is in favor of doing that which is good and and it is not in some kind of "sin and still be saved" or in "being a slave to our sin" type belief. For it states that the righteous will scarcely or barely appear. It then makes it sound like it is nearly impossible that any sinner or ungodly person will appear. Meaning, it is saying there will be nobody that is not righteous that will enter God's Kingdom. Again, this is favor to those who "cease from sin" and not those who are still remaining as a sinner or living in an ungodly way. Yes, is it possible for someone to honestly struggle with sin and confess it so as to be forgiven and cleansed of it? Absolutely. But a believer does not sin willingly (even on occasion) with the thinking they can just keep on sinning as if it was some kind of license, though. God will know if you are trying to trick Him. If you honestly want to turn from sin, that is one thing. But if a person just sins all week thinking they can just later confess it like some Catholics do (with a priest)... it is not really going to work out for them all that well.
4. Here is the part of the verse that is the nail in the coffin that makes "cease from sin" mean exactly what it says plainly. Verse 19 talks about how the believer will suffer according to God's will to the keeping of their souls in "well doing." So we keep our souls. Meaning we protect our very souls here (Which is obviously referring to salvation) by doing that which is well or good. This involves suffering according to God's will. It is the ending words in the last verse of this chapter that is saying the same thing as verse 1.