I am still a little fuzzy on what you believe on 1 Peter 4:1 here. Are you saying that you suffer in the flesh as in reference to you sinning physically and yet you are not sinning on some kind of spiritual level because Jesus paid the price for that sin? Is that what you are saying?
Okay. I think I might have been off the mark in my first reply to you. If that is the case, then sorry about that. I am thinking about your IRS example here that you made. But I really do not see how it fits. 1 Peter 4:1 says they that have suffered in the flesh have ceased from sin. This is a past tense action expressed. It is not a present tense word put forth by Peter telling them what they must put into practice only. Peter is saying a truth. They that have suffered in the flesh have ceased from sin. He is speaking as if he has seen this before. Also, the IRS example just doesn't jive with the text. Nowhere is it stating that this sin is the type of sin that does not lead unto death like complaining about the immoral laws within one's government. So I do not believe it is not talking about faults or errors (versus say sins that will lead unto the Second Death, like the Lake of Fire).
Besides, if the law in the IRS is immoral it is not wrong to talk out against it. For surely if the US Government asked you to take the Mark of the Beast tomorrow... would you not talk out against it and say it is bad?
Anyways, I am just trying to understand where you are coming from with this verse. You are still being very unclear in the way that you are explaining it. Does one cease from sin by suffering in the flesh thru obeying God's Commands? Suffer in well doing? If that is the case, then we agree. No? If we do not agree, you really have to explain it to me in a way that is a little more clear.