#146 If we read John 3: 5 again, those that have eyes to see, will find that the text does not say "living water," the text says "water."
If you read John 3:5 again, those who have eyes to see, will find that the text does not say "baptism" and one chapter later, Jesus says in verse 10 - "If you knew the gift of God, and who it is who says to you, 'Give Me a
drink,' you would have asked Him, and He would have given you
living water." In regards to living water, in verse 14, Jesus said - "but whoever
drinks of the
water that I shall give him will
never thirst. But the
water that I shall give him will become in him a
fountain of water springing up into everlasting life." *Jesus connects this water with eternal life and living water is not water baptism. *Simply reading this verse in context would give one no reason to assume Jesus was speaking of water baptism, unless one was looking to read into the passage a "preconceived idea or theology." *John 3:5 fits perfectly with John 4:10-14.
The baptism, in water, in the name of the Father and the Son and the Holy Spirit was to all nations, to make disciples (Matt. 28; 18-20); to all creation (Mark 16: 15, 16); and to as many as God shall call to Himself (Acts 2: 38, 39) and should not IMO be dismissed in any consideration of the "one baptism." God bless.
Getting water baptized is not what magically makes one "become" a disciple. Those who have chosen to become a disciple, a learner, pupil, follower of Christ afterwards get water baptized. Although getting water baptized and observing all that Christ has commanded is a part of discipleship, believers have chosen to become disciples (learners, pupils, followers of Christ) prior to getting water baptized. So you don't baptize unbelievers in order to make them become believers or baptize believers in order to magically make them become disciples, but because they have chosen to become disciples of Christ.
I've already explained Mark 16:16 to you numerous times - He who believes and is baptized will be saved
(general cases without making a qualification for the unusual case of someone who believes but is not baptized) but he who
does not believe will be condemned. The omission of baptized with "does not believe" shows that Jesus does not make baptism absolutely essential to salvation. Condemnation rests on unbelief, not on a lack of baptism. So salvation rests on belief. NOWHERE does the Bible say "baptized or condemned."
If water baptism is absolutely required for salvation, then why did Jesus not mention it in the following verses? (3:15,16,18; 5:24; 6:29,40,47; 11:25,26). What is the ONE requirement that Jesus mentions 9 different times in each of these complete statements?
BELIEVES. *What happened to baptism? *Hermeneutics. John 3:18 - He who
believes in Him is not condemned; but he who (is not water baptized? - NO)
does not believe is condemned already, because he has not (been water baptized? - NO)
because he has not believed in the name of the only begotten Son of God.
I just explained Acts 2:38 to you in post #147 and the only logical conclusion "when properly harmonizing Scripture with Scripture" is that faith in Jesus Christ "implied in genuine repentance" (rather than water baptism) brings the remission of sins and the gift of the Holy Spirit (Luke 24:47; Acts 2:38; 3:19; 5:31; 10:43-47; 11:17,18; 15:8,9; 16:31). *Perfect Harmony*