Post Trib Rapture?

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GaryA

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#81
Let the readers consider ... about the SEQUENTIAL nature of the Dan9:24-27 prophecy...
NOPE.

Daniel 9:24-27 is not [strictly] sequential. In the most general sense possible, it may be thought of as having an overall sequential 'order' verse-by-verse; however, (1) the list in verse 24 is not in chronological order (2) there are overlaps (3) there are asides.

A partial explanation of what Daniel 9:24-27 is actually about:

https://christianchat.com/bible-dis...ant-of-daniel-9-27.76341/page-19#post-1259885

Another worthwhile read:

https://christianchat.com/bible-dis...ant-of-daniel-9-27.76341/page-11#post-1249619
 

TheDivineWatermark

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#82
With regard to what you are saying here - Matthew, Mark, and Luke are talking about the same events - not different things at different times.
At the end of the "70ad Section" of the Olivet Discourse, this:

--"and they shall be LED AWAY CAPTIVE INTO ALL THE NATIONS, and Jerusalem shall be TRODDEN DOWN of the Gentiles UNTIL..." (Lk21:24);

... whereas after the GREAT TRIBULATION Section (Matthew 24:15-31), this:

"--Dan9:24 to that of Isaiah 27:9,12-13 [/Matt24:29-31] and to that of Rom11:26,27[15] [...]
...

... where the "GREAT" trumpet of Matthew 24:29-31 (at the time surrounding His Second Coming to the earth, NOT the 70ad events) connects back with the PROPHETIC PASSAGE in the OT speaking of THIS VERY THING ("GREAT" trumpet) which INSTEAD of having them SCATTERED to every nation (Lk21:24), shows them "gather ye ONE BY ONE, O ye children of Israel, to worship the Lord in the holy mount, AT JERUSALEM" (i.e. the EXACT OPPOSITE "END / OUTCOME" from that of the "70ad" events Section of the Olivet Discourse according to Lk21:24).









The problem enters when one does not connect Matt24:29-31 ("GREAT" trumpet) to that of the prophetic word in Isaiah 27:12-13 (and its verse 9 which connects with BOTH Dan9:24 [about "thy [Daniel's] people" (i.e. Israel)] AND Rom11:26-27 re: Israel's "FUTURE"), but rather disregards these connections instead (and for some weird reason injects "G726" INTO Matt24 where NO "SNATCH" is found, nor spoken of, nor alluded to, whatsoever).
 
N

notonmywatch

Guest
#84
Actually, the text is stating that GOD will bring "with Him [/Jesus]"... but it isn't referring to Him bringing them from Heaven (where they are presently "at home with [G1736 G4314] the Lord" in their spirits/souls) to get their glorified [/resurrected] bodies.

We know this because 1Th4:14 says, "shall God bring [G71, lead] WITH [G4862 - UNIONed-with] Him/Jesus"... and that "UNIONed-with" Him thing requires their already-resurrected BODIES [glorified bodies]"... which is what the "SO [/IN THIS MANNER] SHALL we ever be with [UNIONed-with] the Lord" is talking about (that is, by means of "our Rapture / caught up / SNATCH" will we be with Him)



I think the more pertinent question is, where will He [/God] be "LEADING [G71]" us TO?? (from that point)...

... I believe the preceding context tells us: "BEFORE [in the face of G1715] the God and Father of us" ("in the presence / parousia of our Lord Jesus Christ" with all His saints)



"absent from the body, at home with the Lord"... right. 2Cor5:8 (and referred to earlier in this context as "unclothed"... that is, APART from a body... for a time... upon death of the believer... until they are bodily resurrected of course, at the time of "our Rapture")



except, this is NOT what is being spoken of, where the text states, "shall God bring WITH [UNIONed-WITH] Him" (1Th4:14) because the "UNIONed-WITH" Him thing doesn't happen UNTIL they have their resurrected bodies and we are "caught up TOGETHER WITH" them ("and SO SHALL we ever BE UNIONEDed-WITH the Lord"--BY MEANS OF "our Rapture / SNATCH" UP... TOGETHER at the same time)




Right.

And interesting that this same word "prevent / precede [G5348]" (in 1Th4:15) is also used in the Daniel 7:13 [LXX] passage I had pointed out in a different thread, showing how the "Son of man" by means of "the clouds of the heavens" will be "brought [Him / Jesus] near before Him [/God]"... that is, UP THERE.




So?

The question is, where do we go once we are "caught up" TO the MEETING OF THE LORD "in the air"?

You say (as many do) "right back down"...

... whereas, I (taking my clues from the text, its precise wording, and previous/wider context) say "UP" to the third Heaven, "BEFORE [in the face of G1715]" the God and Father of us" per 1Th3:13 (and as evidenced by the "24 elders" [wearing "stephanous / crowns"(!!)] saying" hast redeemed US TO GOD by Thy blood OUT-OF EVERY..." before Jesus will be opening the FIRST SEAL at the START of the "7-yr period" commonly called the Tribulation Period).



Easy.

One just must pay careful attention to the actual words used, and to the broader context (not relying merely on the few verses in chpt 4 to try to come to its meaning), and recognizing that the "shall God BRING [/LEAD] WITH [UNIONed-WITH, G4862] Him" cannot occur WITHOUT their resurrected/glorified BODIES (so cannot be referring to Him bringing them [body-less, in their spirits/souls] from Heaven when He DESCENDS for the meeting "in the air". NO.)
I'm sorry, but you're dead wrong if you're asserting that some believers will already have glorified bodies prior to Christ's coming as described in 1 Thessalonians chapter 4.

1 Corinthians 15

20But now is Christ risen from the dead, and become the firstfruits of them that slept. 21For since by man came death, by man came also the resurrection of the dead. 22For as in Adam all die, even so in Christ shall all be made alive. 23But every man in his own order: Christ the firstfruits; afterward they that are Christ's at his coming.

Nobody, apart from Christ himself, gets their glorified body prior to Christ's coming, and not comings.

He's only coming twice, and he already came once.

Hebrews 9

27And as it is appointed unto men once to die, but after this the judgment: 28So Christ was once offered to bear the sins of many; and unto them that look for him shall he appear the second time without sin unto salvation.

In Christ's first coming, he was offered to bear the sins of many.

In Christ's second coming, he shall appear without sin unto salvation unto those who look for him.

And before you or anybody else even thinks to go the route of charlatans who would seek to deceive God's people into believing that there's a difference between Christ's "epiphaneia" and his "parousia", I'd suggest that you study the following portion of scripture.

2 Thessalonians 2

8And then shall that Wicked be revealed, whom the Lord shall consume with the spirit of his mouth, and shall destroy with the brightness of his coming:

Christ shall destroy the antichrist with the brightness (epiphaneia) of his coming (parousia).

In other words, they are one and the selfsame event.
 

cv5

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#85
He's only coming twice, and he already came once.
No. You've got that all wrong.

#1-Jesus "arrives" to the earth at the incarnation

#2-Jesus ascends to heaven post-resurrection after a brief conversation with Mary
John 20:17
Jesus says to her, “Do not touch Me, for not yet have I ascended to the Father. Now go to My brothers and say to them, ‘I am ascending to My Father and your Father, and to My God and your God.’”

#3-Jesus RETURNS from heaven to fulfill His post-resurrection mission with His believers/disciples, instructing and strengthening them. During this 40 days, (Acts 1:3) the Bible tells us that Jesus appeared at least 10 times.....only to His own, to believers.
What Jesus did during 40 days on earth after resurrection. - JesusAlive.cc

#4,5,6,7...?????-We have no idea how many times Jesus ascended and descended during this 40 days. Could be several, could be many,
but is seems unlikely that He did not ascend at all during this 40 days. He was not limited in any way in this regard.

#4 (min) or #5,6,7, ??? After the 40 days ministry was complete, Jesus ascends again to heaven, ready to appear to EXCLUSIVELY His own to take them to His Father's house as He promised in John 14:2-3
Mar 16:19, 20; Luk 24:50–53
Act 1:9
And when he had spoken these things, while they beheld, he was taken up; and a cloud received him out of their sight.
 
N

notonmywatch

Guest
#86
No. You've got that all wrong.
Really?

What is it about "the second time" that both I and the writer of the epistle to the Hebrews got wrong?

Hebrews 9

27And as it is appointed unto men once to die, but after this the judgment: 28So Christ was once offered to bear the sins of many; and unto them that look for him shall he appear the second time without sin unto salvation.
 

cv5

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#87
No. You've got that all wrong.

#1-Jesus "arrives" to the earth at the incarnation

#2-Jesus ascends to heaven post-resurrection after a brief conversation with Mary
John 20:17
Jesus says to her, “Do not touch Me, for not yet have I ascended to the Father. Now go to My brothers and say to them, ‘I am ascending to My Father and your Father, and to My God and your God.’”

#3-Jesus RETURNS from heaven to fulfill His post-resurrection mission with His believers/disciples, instructing and strengthening them. During this 40 days, (Acts 1:3) the Bible tells us that Jesus appeared at least 10 times.....only to His own, to believers.
What Jesus did during 40 days on earth after resurrection. - JesusAlive.cc

#4,5,6,7...?????-We have no idea how many times Jesus ascended and descended during this 40 days. Could be several, could be many,
but is seems unlikely that He did not ascend at all during this 40 days. He was not limited in any way in this regard.

#4 (min) or #5,6,7, ??? After the 40 days ministry was complete, Jesus ascends again to heaven, ready to appear to EXCLUSIVELY His own to take them to His Father's house as He promised in John 14:2-3
Mar 16:19, 20; Luk 24:50–53
Act 1:9
And when he had spoken these things, while they beheld, he was taken up; and a cloud received him out of their sight.
EDIT to above post....(had to run out to drive my wife to work)

#4 (min) or #5,6,7, ??? After the 40 days ministry was complete, Jesus ascends again to heaven in a cloud
Mar 16:19, 20; Luk 24:50–53
Act 1:9
And when he had spoken these things, while they beheld, he was taken up; and a cloud received him out of their sight.

#5 (near future) Jesus descends from heaven to the air/sky of the earth and appears EXCLUSIVELY to His own, translating living saints and resurrecting dead saints to new glorified bodies, to take them to His Father's house as He promised in John 14:2-3 at the pre-trib RAPTURE of the Church. THEN the 70th week of Daniel 7 years tribulation begins.

#6 (near future + 7 years) "Immediately after the tribulation of those days" (Matt 24:29) Jesus descends/returns TO THE EARTH (setting his feet on the Mount of Olives (Zech 14:4)) IN GREAT GLORY, where every eye will see Him, including still-living trib saints, ethnic Israelites, and unsaved men from the greatest to the least. Jesus defeats the armies arrayed against Israel. Israel is finally and fully redeemed, all covenants with Abraham fulfilled. Wicked men all destroyed. Jesus reigns OVER THE EARTH in Jerusalem with His Saints.
 

cv5

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#88
Really?

What is it about "the second time" that both I and the writer of the epistle to the Hebrews got wrong?

Hebrews 9

27And as it is appointed unto men once to die, but after this the judgment: 28So Christ was once offered to bear the sins of many; and unto them that look for him shall he appear the second time without sin unto salvation.
That would be the believing Church ("unto them that look for him") at the pre-trib rapture.
And it IS THE "SECOND" TIME.....for the Church and the Church alone. Get it?
 

TheDivineWatermark

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#89
I'm sorry, but you're dead wrong if you're asserting that some believers will already have glorified bodies prior to Christ's coming as described in 1 Thessalonians chapter 4.
I'm not asserting that believers will have glorified bodies prior to the rapture.





I'm saying that 1Th4:14 is not saying "will God bring with Him/Jesus [IN THEIR SPIRITS/SOULS WHEN HE DESCENDS, IN ORDER TO GET THEIR GLORIFIED BODIES]" as many suggest it is saying.





--"will God bring/lead WITH [G4862 - UNIONed-WITH] Him" refers to something that takes place AFTER the "caught up" part, when we are ALL (at the SAME MOMENT) "[be] UNIONed-WITH Him" ("SO / IN THIS MANNER SHALL we ever be WITH / UNIONed-WITH the Lord"--that is, by means of the rapture, NOT PRIOR TO it).




The understood question (in their minds / being addressed) is NOT "oh my, what will happen to my deceased loved-ones [believers] who've died, are they lost forever?? [i.e. without hope, for resurrection?!] " (NO! Not the question!)


The understood question (in their minds / being addressed) is rather, HOW will the dead in Christ ALSO participate in 'UNIONed-with Him' and the [presented] 'BEFORE [in face of] the God and Father of us' [whole, i.e. in glorified bodies along with the 'we which are ALIVE and remain unto' segment of us] since they have DIED before that point??'
(not to mention the RETURN 'UNIONed-WITH Him' part!--i.e. at His Second Coming to the earth FOR the Millennial Kingdom age / wedding FEAST/SUPPER aspect).



Paul answers that understood question by saying, HERE'S HOW: "the dead in Christ SHALL RISE FIRST" (i.e. be bodily resurrected first),

"17 THEN we which are ALIVE and remain [unto the coming/presence/parousia of the Lord, per v.15] shall be CAUGHT UP [verb] TOGETHER [adverb] WITH [at the SAME moment THEY are also 'caught up'] them in the clouds UNTO THE MEETING [noun] OF THE LORD in the air, and SO / IN THIS MANNER shall we [all of us] ever be WITH / UNIONed-WITH the Lord"

(it is NOT the case that we will meet THEM *and* Jesus in the clouds / in the air, as though this text is saying they will be in that location AHEAD of us--the text does NOT suggest this!!--Rather, the verb must be attached to the adverb, so says, "caught up together with" them (meaning, at the SAME TIME / in the SAME MOMENT that THEY are ALSO "caught up" [BODILY]--i.e. as the "ONE BODY" that we are! ['the Church WHICH IS HIS BODY'--ALL those saved 'in this present age [singular]'--TO/FOR/ABOUT whom "our Rapture [IN THE AIR]" SOLELY pertains... it does not pertain to all other saints of all OTHER time periods: not to OT saints, not to Trib saints, not to MK age saints]).


Some are getting the understood question (in their minds / being addressed) wrong, because they do not grasp what it is that 1Th3:13 is saying (that prefaces this address / point Paul is making in chpt 4). It has to do with our GOING UP to be IN GOD'S PRESENCE ("BEFORE [G1715 - in the face of] the God and Father of us" just like other passagES also show).
 

TheDivineWatermark

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#90
Hebrews 9
27And as it is appointed unto men once to die, but after this the judgment: 28So Christ was once offered to bear the sins of many; and unto them that look for him shall he appear the second time without sin unto salvation.
In Christ's first coming, he was offered to bear the sins of many.
In Christ's second coming, he shall appear without sin unto salvation unto those who look for him.
I disagree that Hebrews 9:28 is saying as you suggest; Rather, is saying, "A SECOND TIME APART FROM SIN shall appear"... The FIRST time "APART FROM SIN" He appeared [5 verses: "[passive] appear"] was AFTER His resurrection / ascension (on FF)... in the some "40 days" He spent with them before going up again to Heaven in Acts 1...

... PLUS [5 other verses: "[passive] appear"] referring to when He appeared to Paul on the Damascus road FROM JESUS' POSITION UP IN HEAVEN...


NONE of these 10 verses [re: "[passive] appear" (re: Jesus) like Heb9:28 uses] speak of His earthly ministry BEFORE His death / resurrection (i.e. His FIRST ADVENT, commonly called).


So, I remain unconvinced that this verse speaks of His Second Advent / His Second Coming to the earth Rev19 point in the chronology.




[for the readers: as I've mentioned in past posts, I believe Paul is a "TYPE" of the "144,000"... which point I believe "connects" with our verse under present discussion]
 

cv5

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#91
Really?

What is it about "the second time" that both I and the writer of the epistle to the Hebrews got wrong?

Hebrews 9

27And as it is appointed unto men once to die, but after this the judgment: 28So Christ was once offered to bear the sins of many; and unto them that look for him shall he appear the second time without sin unto salvation.
EDIT......to my earlier post

That would be the believing Church ("unto them that look for him") at the pre-trib rapture.
And it IS the "SECOND" TIME.....for the Church and the Church alone. Get it?

First time (EXCLUSIVELY TO BELIVERS) is during the post-resurrection 40 day ministry to His Saints.
Second time (EXCLUSIVELY TO BELIVERS) at the pre-trib rapture.

Hope that is more clear to you.
 

cv5

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#92
I disagree that Hebrews 9:28 is saying as you suggest; Rather, is saying, "A SECOND TIME APART FROM SIN shall appear"... The FIRST time "APART FROM SIN" He appeared [5 verses: "[passive] appear"] was AFTER His resurrection / ascension (on FF)... in the some "40 days" He spent with them before going up again to Heaven in Acts 1...

... PLUS [5 other verses: "[passive] appear"] referring to when He appeared to Paul on the Damascus road FROM JESUS' POSITION UP IN HEAVEN...


NONE of these 10 verses [re: "[passive] appear" (re: Jesus) like Heb9:28 uses] speak of His earthly ministry BEFORE His death / resurrection (i.e. His FIRST ADVENT, commonly called).


So, I remain unconvinced that this verse speaks of His Second Advent / His Second Coming to the earth Rev19 point in the chronology.




[for the readers: as I've mentioned in past posts, I believe Paul is a "TYPE" of the "144,000"... which point I believe "connects" with our verse under present discussion]
Seems as if there is no conflict with my view in any case.
But yes.....given the context these verses need much scrutiny......:unsure:
 

cv5

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#93
Really?

What is it about "the second time" that both I and the writer of the epistle to the Hebrews got wrong?

Hebrews 9

27And as it is appointed unto men once to die, but after this the judgment: 28So Christ was once offered to bear the sins of many; and unto them that look for him shall he appear the second time without sin unto salvation.
1) incarnation of Jesus (first coming). Results in His death and burial.
2) 40 days of post resurrection appearing "[G3700 passive appear"] multiples times to multiple persons/groups of BELIEVERS ONLY.
3) the FINAL time that Jesus "appears" EXCLUSIVELY to the BELIEVERS (the Church) is the pre-trib rapture, where we are "union-ed" with Him. There need be no other appearance for us. Henceforth we follow him wherever He goes.
4) Second Coming to the earth (WITH us) without any exclusions as to who are able to see Him, and in fact a manifestation of a kind that insures EVERYONE WILL.

Heb 9:28
So Christ was once offered to bear the sins of many; and unto them that look for him shall he appear G3700 the second time without sin unto salvation.
Act 1:3
To whom also he shewed himself alive after his passion by many infallible proofs, being seen G3700 of them forty days, and speaking of the things pertaining to the kingdom of God:
Act 9:17
And Ananias went his way, and entered into the house; and putting his hands on him said, Brother Saul, the Lord, even Jesus, that appeared G3700 unto thee in the way as thou camest, hath sent me, that thou mightest receive thy sight, and be filled with the Holy Ghost.
1Co 15:5
And that he was seen G3700 of Cephas, then of the twelve:
1Co 15:6
After that, he was seen G3700 of above five hundred brethren at once; of whom the greater part remain unto this present, but some are fallen asleep.
1Co 15:7
After that, he was seen G3700 of James; then of all the apostles.
1Co 15:8
And last of all he was seen G3700 of me also, as of one born out of due time.


These G5319 "appear"-ances MUST be both future and exclusively related to the Church.....at the rapture event.
Col 3:4
When Christ, who is our life, shall appear, G5319 then shall G5319 ➔ ye also appear G5319 with him in glory.
1Pe 5:4
And when the chief Shepherd shall appear, G5319 ye shall receive a crown of glory that fadeth not away.
 

TheDivineWatermark

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#94
Ok, i'll explain it.[...]
2 Thessalonians 1:6-8
since indeed God considers it just to repay with affliction those who afflict you, and to grant relief to you who are afflicted as well as to us, when the Lord Jesus is revealed from heaven with his mighty angels in flaming fire, inflicting vengeance on those who do not know God and on those who do not obey the gospel of our Lord Jesus.
The text states, "rest/repose with us IN THE REVELATION OF the Lord Jesus from Heaven with His MIGHTY angels IN FLAMING FIRE INFLICTING VENGEANCE ON those that..."
Here we have Jesus returning, His own getting rest and the wicked getting vengeance, and notice this is definately the second coming as it says He returns in flaming fire taking vengeance,
The "INFLICTING VENGEANCE ON those that" speaks of a SPANS OF TIME (not merely the "singular 24-hr day" kind of day, at His Second Coming to the earth point in time, Rev19)... and we know this for SEVERAL reasons (the least of which is spelled out here... but I will add another small point at the bottom of this post also):

--"AVENGE in quickness [noun]" (Lk18:8) = the Rev1:1 "things which must come to pass IN QUICKNESS [noun]" that this verse tells will be "SHOW[n]" ("TO SHOW UNTO" 1:1) which is the "FUTURE" aspects of the Book, per Rev1:19c / 4:1 ["SHOW"] / 1:1 [7:3]; NOT things which would unfold over some near-2000 years (as the "Historicists" suggest);

--"shall CRUSH Satan UNDER *your* feet IN QUICKNESS [noun]" (corresponding with what is stated in 1Cor6:3[14] ["that WE SHALL JUDGE ANGELS"], and why we see the "24 elders" SITTING ON THRONES b/f Jesus will "STAND to JUDGE" [Isa3:13] by His opening the FIRST SEAL at the START of the "IN QUICKNESS [noun]" time period, aka the "7-yr" period commonly called the Tribulation Period);
Rom16:20's time-frame has NOT YET TAKEN PLACE, but WILL (we must CHANGE LOCATIONS first! ;) );

this can also be proven by showing that Jesus destroys the man of sin at His coming, proving the coming is post-tribulational:
"the MANIFESTATION of His presence/parousia" 2Th2:8b (when "EVERY EYE" shall SEE Him) is not the same thing as when "OUR episynagoges UNTO HIM" (2:1) occurs (which involves ONLY US, and NO ONE ELSE!) Paul is DISTINGUISHING these points.










[to that other point]

Besides everything I've written in past posts (other threads) about the 2Th1:7-10 passage (re: the "[rest with us] IN THE REVELATION OF" time-period / spans-of-time), where the "INFLICTING VENGEANCE ON" unfolds over the course of SOME TIME (to the SAME ppl [in SAME time-period] that 2Th2:10-12 ALSO speaks of, when it says, "God shall SEND TO THEM great delusion SO THAT they should BELIEVE THE LIE / the FALSE / the PSEUDEI" (these are ppl who refused to believe the truth); but Paul is showing a CONTRAST between these ppl (who will "BELIEVE" the LIE / the FALSE) and OTHER ppl DURING THE SAME [future] TIME-PERIOD who will come to believe THE TRUTH--"in ALL THOSE HAVING BELIEVED [not speaking of the Thessalonians' own belief, here!] because was believed 'the testimony-of-us-to-you' IN THAT DAY"... Again, wherever (in Scripture) the phrases "IN THAT DAY" and "the Day of the Lord" are used in close proximity / same contexts (as they are HERE in THESE TWO CHPTS), they are speaking of the SAME TIME-PERIOD.

So where it says, in v.10 "when He shall come TO BE GLORIFIED *in His saints* and TO BE MARVELED AT [/regarded with wonder / wondered at] in all those having believed because the testimony-of-us-to-you WAS BELIEVED *IN THAT DAY*" [not in the Thessalonians' day--this isn't speaking of the Thessalonians' own "belief"! But FUTURE PPL, "IN THAT DAY" (IN "the DOTL" time period, the TRIB aspect OF it!)], the part about the "TO BE MARVELED AT [/regarded with wonder / wondered at]" corresponds to the following passage:

King James Bible
Hear now, O Joshua the high priest, thou, and thy fellows that sit before thee: for they are men wondered at: for, behold, I will bring forth my servant the BRANCH.

A Faithful Version
Hear now, O Joshua the high priest, you and your fellows who sit before you; for they are men wondered at, for behold, I will bring forth My Servant the Branch!

Webster's Bible Translation
Hear now, O Joshua the high priest, thou and thy fellows that sit before thee: for they are men wondered at: for behold, I will bring forth my servant the BRANCH.

--Zech3:8

[see Rev4:4, 5:9 "sitting" etc]
 

TheDivineWatermark

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#95
^ Along with that, consider also what I've put in past posts (briefly put, here):

--COMPARE the wording between 2Th2:7b-8a TO THAT OF Lam2:3-4 ("he hath DRAWN BACK his right hand FROM BEFORE THE ENEMY"... essentially lifting the restraint! and saying, in effect, "HAVE AT 'EM!");

--notice the "IN FLAMING FIRE" wording also, in Lam2:3-4, as well as the "WRATH" words




[note: "the man of sin be revealed" takes place at the START of the "7-yr" period (i.e. "7-yr" period = that aspect OF the OVERALL very lengthy "DOTL" time-period [coz it goes onto INCLUDE the MK age too!]), NOT at its MIDDLE (2Th2:4) nor at its END (2Th2:8b) of the "7 yrs"]
 

TheDivineWatermark

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#96
what does Jesus say about it? Matt 13;30 the wheat stays till the end.
"The Church which is His body" (that's us) is not the "WHEAT"

Tada!

( :D )


"The 144,000" are "FIRSTFRUIT" of the "WHEAT" harvest (and they will exist on the earth, in their shown role, in the FUTURE Trib years--not NOW, not YET).


In Scripture (as in nature), there is MORE THAN ONE "HARVEST".

Thus, there is MORE THAN ONE "FIRSTFRUIT" (even James 1:18 states, "a KIND [/certain] of firstfruit"... i.e. there is more than one KIND)...


... and this is indeed what Lev 23 shows: TWO [distinct] mentions of "FIRSTFRUIT".


The LATTER of these two mentions, is found in Lev23:17 (corresponding with the wording used in Rev14:4 re: the 144,000), in the part about the "WHEAT" harvest... and where v.17 says, "TWO loaves" and "baken WITH LEAVEN" (<--these are NOT how "the Church which is His body" is spoken of in the epistles!<--examine these, to SEE IF THESE THINGS ARE SO, meaning, what I just said!)






[again: as I've mentioned in past posts (other threads), the "WHEAT" is harvested by means of a "tribulum" (harvesting implement); whereas the EARLIER harvest is harvested by means of TOSSING INTO THE AIR and BLOWING away the chaff!]
 

TheDivineWatermark

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Aug 3, 2018
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#97
^ The question His disciples asked Jesus in Matthew 24:3 was BASED ON what He had ALREADY spoken to them about in Matthew 13:24,30,39,40,49-50 (re: "the END [singular] of the AGE [singular]"--when the angels will "REAP"); Notice that [to the angels it will be said, at that time], "collect ye FIRST the TARES" [note this is the EXACT OPPOSITE SEQUENCE from that which occurs at "our Rapture [IN THE AIR]" time-slot!!], and that the angels will "gather OUT all things that offend" [same as the "one shall be TAKEN" (i.e. TAKEN AWAY in JUDGMENT... JUST AS IN NOAH'S DAY), "the other LEFT" (i.e. LEFT on the earth, to "fill" the earth [bearing children / reproducing] JUST AS IN NOAH'S DAY; COMPARE: Dan2:35c with Gen9:1 to that of Matt24 / Lk17 with this "taken and left" contexts)].

The Subject of Jesus' Olivet Discourse (and Matt13 corresponding) is NOT "RAPTURE [IN THE AIR]"... At the time Jesus spoke His Olivet Discourse (up till and INCLUDING His OD), He had not yet spoken ANYTHING regarding "rapture". The Subject Jesus is covering in His Olivet Discourse (except for about 12 verses in Lk21:12-24 about the "70ad events") is ALL ABOUT His Second Coming TO THE EARTH, FOR the commencement of the promised and prophesied EARTHLY Millennial Kingdom age (and the brief time-period immediately PRECEDING and LEADING UP TO that: the "SEALS" of Rev6 are EQUIVALENT "the beginning of birth PANGS [plural]" Jesus spoke of, and the SEALS fall within the "IN QUICKNESS [NOUN]" time-period that Rev1:1 / 1:19c / 4:1 [7:3] refers to, otherwise commonly known as the 7-yr Tribulation Period, which immediately precedes and LEADS UP TO His Second Coming TO THE EARTH Rev19, at which point "the age [singular] to come" that He had previously spoken of in Matt12:32 commences!)
 

Saul-to-Paul

Junior Member
Jun 5, 2017
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#98
Please give more detail about what you are saying here...

Please define 'salvation power' in the context of your statement.
They had power to shut heaven. (Revelation 11:6) Faith comes by hearing. If there's no "good tree" (God only uses saved people to save) to preach the Gospel no one can become saved. Romans 10:14-17

Luke 15:7 I say unto you, that likewise joy shall be in heaven over one sinner that repenteth, more than over ninety and nine just persons, which need no repentance.

'Every external representation of the Christian church' - external to what?
There's a invisible church God is building. There's the external church that man has build.

1 Corinthians 3:9-13
9 For we are labourers together with God: ye are God's husbandry, ye are God's building.

10 According to the grace of God which is given unto me, as a wise masterbuilder, I have laid the foundation, and another buildeth thereon. But let every man take heed how he buildeth thereupon.

11 For other foundation can no man lay than that is laid, which is Jesus Christ.

12 Now if any man build upon this foundation gold, silver, precious stones, wood, hay, stubble; (external church)

13 Every man's work shall be made manifest: for the day shall declare it, because it shall be revealed by fire; and the fire shall try every man's work of what sort it is.

This ties into Matthew 24:1,2
1 And Jesus went out, and departed from the temple: and his disciples came to him for to shew him the buildings of the temple.

2 And Jesus said unto them, See ye not all these things? verily I say unto you, There shall not be left here one stone upon another, that shall not be thrown down.

1 Peter 2:5
Ye also, as lively stones, are built up a spiritual house, an holy priesthood, to offer up spiritual sacrifices, acceptable to God by Jesus Christ.

The believers will fall inside the external representation of the church.

'in the Great Tribulation' - since ~ 70 A.D. or some other historical point in time?
Matthew 24:15,16
15 When ye therefore shall see the abomination of desolation, spoken of by Daniel the prophet, stand in the holy place, (whoso readeth, let him understand: )

16 Then let them which be in Judaea flee into the mountains:

How does a believer see?
2 Corinthians 5:7
(For we walk by faith, not by sight: )

The Great Tribulation is seen within the Bible alone, comparing spiritual things with Spiritual.
 

GaryA

Truth, Honesty, Love, Courage
Aug 10, 2019
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#99
At the end of the "70ad Section" of the Olivet Discourse, this:
... whereas after the GREAT TRIBULATION Section (Matthew 24:15-31), this:
There are no differentiated 'sections' of the Olivet Discourse. There are three accounts of the [same] Olivet Discourse - all of which 'discuss' the same things with only the 'details' being a little different from account to account.

The problem enters when one does not connect...
The problem enters when one does not see the simple clear connection between three accounts of the [same] Olivet Discourse.

Take a look at this web page:

http://mywebsite.us/BibleStudy/Olivet_Discourse.html

For each row of the main table - all of the verses in that row "go together" - they are referring to the same 'event' at the same point in time. In no case in the same row do two accounts refer to disparate events or points in time.

Despite what you [would like to] believe, Matthew 24:15-22, Mark 13:14-20, and Luke 21:20-24 are all referring to the same events in the same time frame.
 

TheDivineWatermark

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The question His disciples asked Jesus in Matthew 24:3 was BASED ON what He had ALREADY spoken to them about in Matthew 13:24,30,39,40,49-50 (re: "the END [singular] of the AGE [singular]"--when the angels will "REAP"); [...<snip>...] and that the angels will "gather OUT all things that offend" [same as the "one shall be TAKEN" (i.e. TAKEN AWAY in JUDGMENT... JUST AS IN NOAH'S DAY), "the other LEFT" (i.e. LEFT on the earth, to "fill" the earth [bearing children / reproducing] JUST AS IN NOAH'S DAY; COMPARE: Dan2:35c with Gen9:1 to that of Matt24 / Lk17 with this "taken and left" contexts)].
...and just to add:

... these "one taken [taken away in judgment--just as in Noah's day], the other left [left on the earth, to "fill" the earth--bearing children / reproducing--just as in Noah's day]" passages, this is talking about the "STILL-LIVING" persons at the END of the Tribulation period, and those "LEFT" will ENTER the MK age in their MORTAL BODIES (capable of reproducing / bearing children--the ONLY ones who will have that capacity at that time... and later their offspring will also, and so forth).
All UNBELIEVERS / LOST / UNSAVED will be as Lk17:27,29 states (same context) "and DESTROYED [G622] them ALL" as well as other passages saying same.

That is, NO UNBELIEVERS / LOST / UNSAVED will ENTER the promised and prophesied earthly Millennial Kingdom age (commencing upon His "RETURN" to the earth Rev19 / Lk12:36-37,38,40,42-44-46-48 and its parallel in Matt24:42-51 etc etc... tons of passages...).

And yet, as Rev20:8b informs us (regarding ppl at the end of the MK age), "the number of whom is as the sand of the sea"...


In the other viewpoints, ALL saints are "glorified" at the time of His Second Coming to the earth (Rev19), and all the unsaved / unbelievers / lost / wicked / goats / tares (etc) are destroyed / killed. So how did the earth become so populated as to say of them "the number of whom is as the sand of the sea" regarding ppl / mortals who could conceivably be "deceived" [as is Satan's AIM / OBJECTIVE at that point in time]?? Where did these MORTALS COME FROM (in your perspective / the post-trib perspective and others like it) at that point in the chronology??