repentance and baptism is conjunctive here from the kai (and)
meaning both conditions are necessary to fulfill the statement
even if they were, necessarily, parenthesized by commas,
as in repent, and every one of you be baptized, for the remission of sins,
they would still be conjoined logically
Similarly, Acts 3:19 conjoins repentance with
which could imply baptism, unless he is using it superfluously, therefore it is unnecessary to pick repentance alone (slightly better than faith alone as refuted by James) over repentance and baptism, which is what Acts 2:38 inescapably states
It could also simply be that by "repent" he included certain actions that go along with that such as baptism.
Technically Acts 2:38 doesn't necessarily imply receiving the Holy Spirit after baptism,
His words could be interpreted as at some later point from then, because they didn't have the Holy Spirit yet,
they'd receive the Holy Spirit in response to them repenting and being baptized,
whether proactively (from God's foreknowledge) like with Cornelius perhaps, or retroactively
there is no grammatical reason showing that baptism is parenthetical in Acts 2:38, even though baptisms are not in Acts 10:43
This, however,
is also not in Acts 10:43, as well as this
Because the soteriological process is generalized sometimes, and needs to be unpacked.
Since Peter is not contradicting himself, it is much easier for Acts 10:43 to be implying baptism rather than Acts 2:38 somehow excluding baptism from the remission of sins.
Let's also, then, compare your (presumed) interpretation of Acts 10:45 with Acts 19 and Acts 8
Acts 19:5On hearing this, they were baptized into the name of the Lord Jesus. 6And when Paul laid his hands on them, the Holy Spirit came upon them, and they spoke in tongues and prophesied. 7There were about twelve men in all
Not that I'm saying laying hands is always necessary, but if faith alone were necessary, did they all, twelve times in a row, happen to believe at the exact moment Paul laid his hands on them, yet having nothing to do with Paul laying his hands on them but only their faith?
Same here
Acts 8:
14When the apostles in Jerusalem heard that Samaria had received the word of God, they sent Peter and John to them. 15On their arrival, they prayed for them to receive the Holy Spirit. 16For the Holy Spirit had not yet fallen upon any of them; they had simply been baptized into the name of the Lord Jesus. 17Then Peter and John laid their hands on them, and they received the Holy Spirit.
18When Simon saw that the Spirit was given through the laying on of the apostles’ hands, he offered them money
meaning both conditions are necessary to fulfill the statement
even if they were, necessarily, parenthesized by commas,
as in repent, and every one of you be baptized, for the remission of sins,
they would still be conjoined logically
Similarly, Acts 3:19 conjoins repentance with
19Repent, then, and turn back, so that your sins may be wiped away,
which could imply baptism, unless he is using it superfluously, therefore it is unnecessary to pick repentance alone (slightly better than faith alone as refuted by James) over repentance and baptism, which is what Acts 2:38 inescapably states
It could also simply be that by "repent" he included certain actions that go along with that such as baptism.
Technically Acts 2:38 doesn't necessarily imply receiving the Holy Spirit after baptism,
His words could be interpreted as at some later point from then, because they didn't have the Holy Spirit yet,
they'd receive the Holy Spirit in response to them repenting and being baptized,
whether proactively (from God's foreknowledge) like with Cornelius perhaps, or retroactively
there is no grammatical reason showing that baptism is parenthetical in Acts 2:38, even though baptisms are not in Acts 10:43
This, however,
Romans 10
9that if you confess with your mouth, “Jesus is Lord,” and believe in your heart that God raised Him from the dead, you will be saved.
9that if you confess with your mouth, “Jesus is Lord,” and believe in your heart that God raised Him from the dead, you will be saved.
is also not in Acts 10:43, as well as this
John 6
53So Jesus said to them, “Truly, truly, I tell you, unless you eat the flesh and drink the blood of the Son of Man, you have no life in you.
53So Jesus said to them, “Truly, truly, I tell you, unless you eat the flesh and drink the blood of the Son of Man, you have no life in you.
Because the soteriological process is generalized sometimes, and needs to be unpacked.
Since Peter is not contradicting himself, it is much easier for Acts 10:43 to be implying baptism rather than Acts 2:38 somehow excluding baptism from the remission of sins.
Let's also, then, compare your (presumed) interpretation of Acts 10:45 with Acts 19 and Acts 8
Acts 19:5On hearing this, they were baptized into the name of the Lord Jesus. 6And when Paul laid his hands on them, the Holy Spirit came upon them, and they spoke in tongues and prophesied. 7There were about twelve men in all
Not that I'm saying laying hands is always necessary, but if faith alone were necessary, did they all, twelve times in a row, happen to believe at the exact moment Paul laid his hands on them, yet having nothing to do with Paul laying his hands on them but only their faith?
Same here
Acts 8:
14When the apostles in Jerusalem heard that Samaria had received the word of God, they sent Peter and John to them. 15On their arrival, they prayed for them to receive the Holy Spirit. 16For the Holy Spirit had not yet fallen upon any of them; they had simply been baptized into the name of the Lord Jesus. 17Then Peter and John laid their hands on them, and they received the Holy Spirit.
18When Simon saw that the Spirit was given through the laying on of the apostles’ hands, he offered them money
https://christianchat.com/bible-dis...ence-of-salvation.212154/page-15#post-5133437