Sovereignty of God and Moral Responsibility of Man

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cfultz3

Guest
God blinds people and then holds them guilty for having blinded them? This is just?

What if I held my child back from going to school, not even homeschooling? Is he held responsible for being uneducated?
Why did/does God blind people?
 
Jan 19, 2013
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makes ya wander about even that when you look at things like this.


Ez 33
[SUP]11 [/SUP]Say to them: ‘As I live,’ says the Lord God, ‘I have no pleasure in the death of the wicked, but that the wicked turn from his way and live.
In complete agreement with the OP. . .
 
Jan 19, 2013
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God blinds people and then holds them guilty for having blinded them? This is just?

What if I held my child back from going to school, not even homeschooling? Is he held responsible for being uneducated?
Can you say Pharoah. . .Ex 4:21.

Your analogy is not even close to analogous.
 
Jan 19, 2013
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Did God not hardened him because he was already wicked?
That God judicially blinds, deafens (Lk 8:10) and hardens (Ro 11:25) is the testimony of Scripture.

That God holds men guilty of their judicial blindness, deafness and hardness is likewise the testimony of Scripture.

By hardening them, he renders them unable to turn and repent, and holds them guilty of not turning and repenting.

For it is just that the unjust should glorify the justice of God.
 
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cfultz3

Guest
That God judicially blinds, deafens (Lk 8:10) and hardens (Ro 11:25) is the testimony of Scripture.

That God holds men guilty of their judicial blindness, deafness and hardness is likewise the testimony of Scripture.

By hardening them, he renders them unable to turn and repent, and holds them guilty of not turning and repenting.

For it is just that the unjust should glorify the justice of God.
Then I am forced to ask again:

God blinds people and then holds them guilty for having blinded them? This is just?

What if I held my child back from going to school, not even homeschooling? Is he held responsible for being uneducated?
Is it not possible for God to turn an hardened heart to flesh?

Eze 36:26-27 A new heart also will I give you, and a new spirit will I put within you: and I will take away the stony heart out of your flesh, and I will give you an heart of flesh. And I will put my spirit within you, and cause you to walk in my statutes, and ye shall keep my judgments, and do them.​
 
E

eternally-gratefull

Guest
In complete agreement with the OP. . .
no actually it would not be. Because the passage would be saying God wills them to turn,, Meaning he wants them to CHOSE..
 
Jan 19, 2013
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That God judicially blinds, deafens (Lk 8:10) and hardens (Ro 11:25) is the testimony of Scripture.

That God holds men guilty of their judicial blindness, deafness and hardness is likewise the testimony of Scripture.

By hardening them, he renders them unable to turn and repent, and holds them guilty of not turning and repenting.

For it is just that the unjust should glorify the justice of God.
Then I am forced to ask again:

God blinds people and then holds them guilty for having blinded them? This is just?

Is it not possible for God to turn an hardened heart to flesh?

Eze 36:26-27 A new heart also will I give you, and a new spirit will I put within you: and I will take away the stony heart out of your flesh, and I will give you an heart of flesh. And I will put my spirit within you, and cause you to walk in my statutes, and ye shall keep my judgments, and do them.
Let me ask you:

Does God harden unbelieving Israel today (Ro 11:25)?

Does God hold unbelieving Israel guilty of their unbelief in Jesus Christ in which they have been hardened?

The answer to my questions is the answer to your question.
 
Jan 19, 2013
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III. Man is morally responsible for his sin.Yes he is.

IV. Man is morally responsible for Adam's sin.
No not responsible, but has the consequence of Adams sin.
Man's responsibility is precisely what Paul labors to show in Ro 5:12-21.

Death is the penalty for sin.
Sin was not taken into account between Adam and Moses.
Yet men died, because they were involved in the sin of someone else, namely, Adam.
Involvement in sin is guilt of sin.

God punishes only the guilty.
Men were guilty of the sin of Adam.

Paul presents two Adams and two imputations.
The sin/guilt of Adam is imputed
to mankind, just as the righteousness of Christ is imputed to those who believe.

Just as were are made righteous by imputation because of the second Adam,
so we are made guilty by imputation because of the first Adam.
 
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cfultz3

Guest
Let me ask you:

Does God harden unbelieving Israel today (Ro 11:25)?
Yes and it is based on their own unbelieve (something they did to themselves).

Does God hold unbelieving Israel guilty of their unbelief in Jesus Christ in which they have been hardened?
Yes of their own unbelieve, but He is not the cause of their unbelieve, but because of this unbelieve, He hardened them

The answer to my questions is the answer to your question.
You are saying that they were blinded because of something they did and they are not judged based on something God did?
 
Jan 19, 2013
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Yes and it is based on their own unbelieve (something they did to themselves).

Yes of their own unbelieve, but He is not the cause of their unbelieve, but because of this unbelieve, He hardened them

You are saying that they were blinded because of something they did and they are not judged based on something God did?
They are judged because of their unbelief.

God hardened them in their unbelief so they could not repent of it.

The same reason he hardened Pharoah, so that he would not listen (Ex 4:21).

So that he would not listen, God hardened him so that he could not listen.
 
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cfultz3

Guest
They are judged because of their unbelief.

God hardened them in their unbelief so they could not repent of it.

The same reason he hardened Pharoah, so that he would not listen (Ex 4:21).

So that he would not listen, God hardened him so that he could not listen.
So you agree, they (whoever) are hardened because of their own action. They are judged by their own action and not judged because they have been blinded. They brought that blindness upon themselves.
 
Jan 19, 2013
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So you agree, they (whoever) are hardened because of their own action. They are judged by their own action and not judged because they have been blinded. They brought that blindness upon themselves.
It's what I've been saying.

And so you agree they were hardened so they could not repent.

For it is just that the unjust should glorify the justice of God.
 
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cfultz3

Guest
It's what I've been saying.

And so you agree they were hardened so they could not repent.

For it is just that the unjust should glorify the justice of God.
Not to be rude, but this is what you said:

That God judicially blinds, deafens (Lk 8:10) and hardens (Ro 11:25) is the testimony of Scripture.

That
God holds men guilty of their judicial blindness, deafness and hardness is likewise the testimony of Scripture.

Byhardening them, he renders them unable to turn and repent, and holds them guilty of not turning and repenting.

For it is just that the unjust should glorify the justice of God.
This says to me: God blinded (etc...) them and because God blinded them, they are held accountable for that blindedness. To me, the way you are saying it is that God blinded them so that He could hold them accountable for that blindness instead of their sin.
 
A

Abiding

Guest
Man's responsibility is precisely what Paul labors to show in Ro 5:12-21.

Death is the penalty for sin.
Sin was not taken into account between Adam and Moses.
Yet men died, because they were involved in the sin of someone else, namely, Adam.
Involvement in sin is guilt of sin.

God punishes only the guilty.
Men were guilty of the sin of Adam.

Paul presents two Adams and two imputations.
The sin/guilt of Adam is imputed
to mankind, just as the righteousness of Christ is imputed to those who believe.

Just as were are made righteous by imputation because of the second Adam,
so we are made guilty by imputation because of the first Adam.
I dont feel like laboring over every post so i need to watch my posts. I said we are in the consequences of Adams sin.
Because we are sinners. Thats what Paul was laboring. We are NOT responsible for Adams sin. He was. I know the doctrine.
And i know your point. I just didnt like how you worded it. I understand the federal head an all i just dont talk theological.

Of coarse you know i dont like Romans 9 used willyNilly. But if you must id sure like you to quit misusing it to teach,

"For it is just that the unjust should glorify the justice of God."

You tell the story as if God hardens whomever then is glorified in unjustice and you call it justice. How odd and sad that is.
read the whole text.....It says "what if" then what? It says He "Endured with much longsuffering the vessels ripe, ready for destruction by wrath"

See you leave out the fact God worked with Israel, He pleaded with Israel. They were far past any mercy. So What if?
God chooses to use them. That is the point of Romans 9. Not making God into a Egotist. But seeing how as you insist that Gods will cant be thwarted. Which i agree. The text shows that.

Your idea that God hardens people is true. But when? After they are reprobate. Past redeemable. For not receiving the
Love of the truth. You tell a different story, then you imply to folks if they were the real elect they would see no problem.
Ha. I see a problem. Its nuts and unbiblical. Well ill say its Half biblical. Since you only read half the text.
 
W

weakness

Guest
huh?
no, that's speaking of the SAVED.

now we have received the spirit of God that we may know the things freely given us by God

that's for the born again!
Hi Zone, I always wanted to tell you I grew up in a Lutheran church in rural Iowa all Germans, some ( in my childhood still spoke German any way...Whether or not the cor.scripture was written to believers or not has no bearing on what is said. As a matter of fact it is probably said more to unsaved than save ,since it is a foundational concept to salvation , that being there is none righteous no not one. And that the natural man receiveth not the things of the God. Perhaps I was unclear,the only means of knowing what God has for us is by the spirit of God revealing them to us. And in context with Paul's message ( read Ch 1-4) in the first few chapters ,of the members being divided . I think Paul was saying that our deadness to God is something we all have in common ,that we were equally all without hope, stuck in sin and death and only by Gods work, not Paul's or Apollos Or Cephas OR the nondenominational ,of Christ ,were we made alive after having received the word with faith , which was our choice To beleive or not to believe. Rom 10:16 But they have not all obeyed the Gospel, For Isaiah has said,"Lord who hath believed our report? (13) for whosoever shall call upon the lord shall be saved" (14) how shall they call on whom they have not believed and how shall they believe on whom they have not heard, and how shall they hear without a preacher. Enough for now ,just trying to clarify, God bless
 

zone

Senior Member
Jun 13, 2010
27,214
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Hi Zone, I always wanted to tell you I grew up in a Lutheran church in rural Iowa all Germans, some ( in my childhood still spoke German any way...Whether or not the cor.scripture was written to believers or not has no bearing on what is said. As a matter of fact it is probably said more to unsaved than save ,since it is a foundational concept to salvation , that being there is none righteous no not one. And that the natural man receiveth not the things of the God. Perhaps I was unclear,the only means of knowing what God has for us is by the spirit of God revealing them to us. And in context with Paul's message ( read Ch 1-4) in the first few chapters ,of the members being divided . I think Paul was saying that our deadness to God is something we all have in common ,that we were equally all without hope, stuck in sin and death and only by Gods work, not Paul's or Apollos Or Cephas OR the nondenominational ,of Christ ,were we made alive after having received the word with faith , which was our choice To beleive or not to believe. Rom 10:16 But they have not all obeyed the Gospel, For Isaiah has said,"Lord who hath believed our report? (13) for whosoever shall call upon the lord shall be saved" (14) how shall they call on whom they have not believed and how shall they believe on whom they have not heard, and how shall they hear without a preacher. Enough for now ,just trying to clarify, God bless
okay, thanks:)
God Bless