The time of Jacobs trouble

  • Christian Chat is a moderated online Christian community allowing Christians around the world to fellowship with each other in real time chat via webcam, voice, and text, with the Christian Chat app. You can also start or participate in a Bible-based discussion here in the Christian Chat Forums, where members can also share with each other their own videos, pictures, or favorite Christian music.

    If you are a Christian and need encouragement and fellowship, we're here for you! If you are not a Christian but interested in knowing more about Jesus our Lord, you're also welcome! Want to know what the Bible says, and how you can apply it to your life? Join us!

    To make new Christian friends now around the world, click here to join Christian Chat.

Ahwatukee

Senior Member
Mar 12, 2015
11,159
2,373
113
#41
Daniel 9:27 is about Messiah the Prince and the New Covenant, which you and others deny has taken place already, hence is why I call that doctrine heresy. Deny the 70th week as being fulfilled, you also deny Messiah crucified in the middle of that 70th week as being fulfilled, and thereby also denying the bringing in of the New Testament. But we have had this discussion before. :)
Hello InSpiritInTruth,

The "He" in Daniel 9:27 cannot be Jesus Christ and that for a couple of good reasons. The "He" in the scripture does 3 three things:

1). He makes a covenant with many for one 'seven' (seven years)

2). He puts a stop to the sacrifice and offerings in the middle of the seven years

3). Also, in the middle of the seven, he sets up an abomination that causes desolation

Now, you might be able to get away with the first two as Jesus being the one performing them, but when it comes to the setting up of the abomination, it wipes out any possibility of the "He" in the verse as being the Lord Jesus. And the reason for this is that, the word "Bdelugma" translated "abomination" is defined as:

==========================================================

"to reek with stench") – properly, what emits a foul odor and hence is disgustingly abhorrent (abominable, detestable); (figuratively) moral horror as a stench to God (like when people refuse to hear and obey His voice).

==========================================================

The setting of the abomination in the holy place is against God and therefore because of that reason, if Jesus was the "He" in the verse performing #1 and #2 in the list above, then he would also have to be the one who is performing #3, which is impossible and that because, by setting the abomination in the holy place, Jesus would be blaspheming God the Father and himself. Therefore, Jesus cannot be the "He" of Dan.9:27. Please consider the following as scriptural proof that Jesus is not the "He" of Dan.9:27:

"So when you see standing in the holy place ‘the abomination that causes desolation,’ spoken of through the prophet Daniel—let the reader understand— 16then let those who are in Judea flee to the mountains. 17Let no one on the housetop go down to take anything out of the house. 18Let no one in the field go back to get their cloak. 19How dreadful it will be in those days for pregnant women and nursing mothers! 20Pray that your flight will not take place in winter or on the Sabbath. 21For then there will be great distress, unequaled from the beginning of the world until now—and never to be equaled again."

In the scripture above, Jesus is quoting Dan.9:27 in regards to the setting up of the abomination. The language here would suggest that Jesus is not speaking of himself as the one who is setting up the abomination, but is warning those in Jerusalem/Judea who will be here at that time, to flee out into the wilderness when that event happens. Jesus certainly would not be setting up the abomination in the holy place within the temple. And if Jesus was the one setting up the abomination, why would he be warning those in Judea to flee?

The desolation (Judea fleeing) which is caused by the setting up of that abomination, is also spoken of in Rev.12:6,14. The "woman" of Rev.12:6,14 --which is symbolic representing Israel -- flees out into the wilderness to that place prepared for her by God during that 3 1/2 years. While she fleeing, the dragon sends a flood (army) after the woman/Israel, but God up opens up the earth and helps the woman by swallowing the flood protecting the woman/Israel (Remember Dathan and Korah). That being said, how could Jesus be the one causing the desolation and God be the one protecting her from the dragon?

The answer is that, Jesus is not the one in view in Dan.9:27. The "He" in the verse, is the last person that was spoken of which is found in Dan.9:26 "the ruler" of the people, referring to that future antichrist, who will make the covenant with Israel only to break it by causing the sacrifice and offerings to cease and "he" will set up that abomination in holy place within the temple. This alerts Israel that this man is not their Messiah, which causes them to flee out into the wilderness where God will already have a place prepared for them.

The main truth that you cannot get away from here is that, there is only one person mentioned in Dan.9:27, therefore if you have Jesus as the one who is making the covenant and causing the sacrifice and offerings to cease, then he also has to be the one who is setting up the abomination and that is where your claim of Jesus being in view fails and that because there is no way that Jesus is going to set up the abomination.

God left off with the fulfillment of that last seven years when the Anointed One was cut off (Christ crucified), because it was meant to be fulfilled in the future. Jesus has been building his Church and once the Church has been completed, then Jesus will gather the dead and the living in him and then that last seven years will commence, when that ruler makes his seven year covenant and which also initiates God's wrath with the seals, trumpets and bowl judgments.
 
Last edited:
Jan 7, 2015
6,057
78
0
#42
That doctrine is blasphemy against Christ Jesus, no Christian should have it.

That doctrine you have, you got from the "synagogue of Satan" who hate Jesus of Nazareth; that's where those ideas that Jesus fulfilled that final "one week" events of Dan.9:27 originates.
Easy there little fella. :)
 
G

GaryA

Guest
#44
... since for 1,946 years there has been no standing Israelite temple since 70 A.D.
"And, according to Daniel 9:27, there will not be another one..." ;)



Daniel 9:

[SUP]27[/SUP] And he shall confirm the covenant with many for one week: and in the midst of the week he shall cause the sacrifice and the oblation to cease,
and for the overspreading of abominations he shall make it desolate, even until the consummation, and that determined shall be poured upon the desolate.



:)
 

Ahwatukee

Senior Member
Mar 12, 2015
11,159
2,373
113
#45
Hello DP,

27 And he shall make a strong covenant with many for one week; and for half of the week he shall cause sacrifice and offering to cease; and upon the wing of abominations shall come one who makes desolate, until the decreed end is poured out on the desolator."


Regarding Dan.9:27 above, Jesus translated and clarified what Daniel wrote so that there is no confusion about what is being said here in Daniel, as is demonstrated below:

"So when you see standing in the holy place ‘the abomination that causes desolation,’[SUP]a[/SUP] spoken of through the prophet Daniel—let the reader understand— 16then let those who are in Judea flee to the mountains. 17Let no one on the housetop go down to take anything out of the house. 18Let no one in the field go back to get their cloak. 19How dreadful it will be in those days for pregnant women and nursing mothers! 20Pray that your flight will not take place in winter or on the Sabbath. 21For then there will be great distress, unequaled from the beginning of the world until now—and never to be equaled again."

Regarding Daniel, Jesus make clear that Daniel's prophecy was about the abomination standing in the holy place, which would be located within the temple. Also, Jesus clarified that the setting up of that abomination would cause the desolation (the emptying) of Jerusalem/Judea. Therefore, in Mt.24:15, Jesus clarifies what is being said in Dan.9:27. Also, the "many" whom the "He" of the verse makes a covenant with, can be none other than Israel. The reason for this--according to Dan.9:24--, is because seventy 'sevens' were decree upon Israel and Jerusalem. Therefore, since sixty-nine of the seven year periods were fulfilled when the Anointed One was cut off (Christ crucified), then being that Dan.9:27 is referring to that seventieth seven, i.e. that last seven years, then Israel and Jerusalem is who and what is in view regarding the covenant that he makes with "many," with Israel being the many. It can't refer to anyone else because the prophecy of seventy 'sevens" was decreed against Israel and her holy city.
 
G

GaryA

Guest
#46
This in my opinion, is one of the best and most accurate English translations of that Dan.9:27 verse:

Dan 9:27
27 And he shall make a strong covenant with many for one week; and for half of the week he shall cause sacrifice and offering to cease; and upon the wing of abominations shall come one who makes desolate, until the decreed end is poured out on the desolator."
RSV
"This is a 'horrid' translation..." :eek:

:)
 
Jan 7, 2015
6,057
78
0
#47
Ahwatukee said...
Hello InSpiritInTruth,

The "He" in Daniel 9:27 cannot be Jesus Christ and that for a couple of good reasons. The "He" in the scripture does 3 three things:

1). He makes a covenant with many for one 'seven' (seven years)

2). He puts a stop to the sacrifice and offerings in the middle of the seven years

3). Also, in the middle of the seven, he sets up an abomination that causes desolation

Now, you might be able to get away with the first two as Jesus being the one performing them, but when it comes to the setting up of the abomination, it wipes out any possibility of the "He" in the verse as being the Lord Jesus.
I'm not trying to get away with anything, just showing how you are wrong. :) Jesus did those things, but not how you worded it. Because Jesus confirmed His covenant in many of his disciples in that final week. Jesus ended the need for any further animal sacrifice and other carnal offerings in the middle of that week when he was crucified in the middle of that week. And because of the overspreading of Jerusalem's abominations Jesus would make it desolate.

There is nothing there about setting up an idol in the temple, or placing an idol to make it desolate in that verse as you jokers try to inject into that verse. LOL!

Read it....

Daniel 9:27 "And he shall confirm the covenant with many for one week: and in the midst of the week he shall cause the sacrifice and the oblation to cease, and for the overspreading of abominations he shall make it desolate, even until the consummation, and that determined shall be poured upon the desolate."

Jesus pronounces Jerusalem desolate...

Luke 13:34-35 "O Jerusalem, Jerusalem, which killest the prophets, and stonest them that are sent unto thee; how often would I have gathered thy children together, as a hen doth gather her brood under her wings, and ye would not![SUP]35 [/SUP]Behold, your house is left unto you desolate: and verily I say unto you, Ye shall not see me, until the time come when ye shall say, Blessed is he that cometh in the name of the Lord."

And Jesus weeps over the city he is looking at with his own eyes because it is going to be destroyed when the AOD is fulfilled in 70 ad.

Luke 19:41-44 "And when he was come near, he beheld the city, and wept over it,
[SUP]42 [/SUP]Saying, If thou hadst known, even thou, at least in this thy day, the things which belong unto thy peace! but now they are hid from thine eyes.
[SUP]43 [/SUP]For the days shall come upon thee, that thine enemies shall cast a trench about thee, and compass thee round, and keep thee in on every side,
[SUP]44 [/SUP]And shall lay thee even with the ground, and thy children within thee; and they shall not leave in thee one stone upon another; because thou knewest not the time of thy visitation."
 
G

GaryA

Guest
#48
This in my opinion, is one of the best and most accurate English translations of that Dan.9:27 verse:

Dan 9:27
27 And he shall make a strong covenant with many for one week; and for half of the week he shall cause sacrifice and offering to cease; and upon the wing of abominations shall come one who makes desolate, until the decreed end is poured out on the desolator."
RSV
"This is a 'horrid' translation..." :eek:
"Which is why it 'pays' to study the 'correct' translation..." ;) ( Get you a KJV Bible to study. :cool: )

"All of those Westcott & Hort translations will lead you astray every time..." :(

:)
 

DP

Banned
Sep 27, 2015
3,325
41
0
#49
"And, according to Daniel 9:27, there will not be another one..." ;)



Daniel 9:

[SUP]27[/SUP] And he shall confirm the covenant with many for one week: and in the midst of the week he shall cause the sacrifice and the oblation to cease,
and for the overspreading of abominations he shall make it desolate, even until the consummation, and that determined shall be poured upon the desolate.



:)
It's actually pointing that there will... be another temple built for the last days tribulation. Rev.11:1-2 shows that also, as does 2 Thess.2:4 does too.
 

DP

Banned
Sep 27, 2015
3,325
41
0
#50
"This is a 'horrid' translation..." :eek:

:)
It's very accurate, better than the KJV even, which is what I mostly use. You just don't like it because it's connection is so clearly aligned with the events in Dan.11.
 
Jan 7, 2015
6,057
78
0
#51
Here is another funny thing about their imaginary missing week in Daniels 70 week prophecy. They say this floating week is a 7 year tribulation, and in it is the AOD that is yet to be fulfilled. This cannot be so because scriptures says 70 weeks were determined to be fulfilled. But by Jesus words we know the great tribulation will be cut short. Soooo that means 70 weeks cannot be a part of that great tribulation Jesus was talking about, because it was determined to be fulfilled.

Not to mention there is no mention of a break in that continuous 490 year prophecy!


Also their wacked out theory says the last week is the tribulation with the AOD contained in it. Buuuttttt scriptures says nothing about the beginning or start point of the tribulation period until AFTER the AOD and destruction of Jerusalem has first happened.

So me thinks these guys need to rethink their imaginary floating week doctrine. :)
 
Last edited:
G

GaryA

Guest
#52
Here is another funny thing about their imaginary missing week in Daniels 70 week prophecy. They say this floating week is a 7 year tribulation, and in it is the AOD that is yet to be fulfilled. This cannot be so because scriptures says 70 weeks were determined to be fulfilled. But by Jesus words we know the great tribulation will be cut short. Soooo that means 70 weeks cannot be a part of that great tribulation Jesus was talking about, because it was determined to be fulfilled.

Not to mention there is no mention of a break in that continuous 490 year prophecy!


Also their wacked out theory says the last week is the tribulation with the AOD contained in it. Buuuttttt scriptures says nothing about the beginning or start point of the tribulation period until AFTER the AOD and destruction of Jerusalem has first happened.

So me thinks these guys need to rethink their imaginary floating week doctrine. :)
Daniel 9:

[SUP]24[/SUP] Seventy weeks are determined upon thy people and upon thy holy city, to finish the transgression, and to make an end of sins, and to make reconciliation for iniquity, and to bring in everlasting righteousness, and to seal up the vision and prophecy, and to anoint the most Holy.



Many people do not seem to understand that this verse is explicitly saying ( 'indicating', in the 'grammar of the language' ) that the 490 years are a single - continuous - unbroken - span of time.

:)
 

DP

Banned
Sep 27, 2015
3,325
41
0
#53
Here is another funny thing about their imaginary missing week in Daniels 70 week prophecy. They say this floating week is a 7 year tribulation, and in it is the AOD that is yet to be fulfilled. This cannot be so because scriptures says 70 weeks were determined to be fulfilled. But by Jesus words we know the great tribulation will be cut short. Soooo that means 70 weeks cannot be a part of that great tribulation Jesus was talking about, because it was determined to be fulfilled.

Not to mention there is no mention of a break in that continuous 490 year prophecy!


Also their wacked out theory says the last week is the tribulation with the AOD contained in it. Buuuttttt scriptures says nothing about the beginning or start point of the tribulation period until AFTER the AOD and destruction of Jerusalem has first happened.

So me thinks these guys need to rethink their imaginary floating week doctrine. :)
Come on man, you know that's silly reasoning.

How long a gap has there been between the fulfilling of Zech.9:9 and Zech.9:10, so far today? Same with the Isaiah 61:1-2 example from Luke 4.
 

DP

Banned
Sep 27, 2015
3,325
41
0
#54
Daniel 9:

[SUP]24[/SUP] Seventy weeks are determined upon thy people and upon thy holy city, to finish the transgression, and to make an end of sins, and to make reconciliation for iniquity, and to bring in everlasting righteousness, and to seal up the vision and prophecy, and to anoint the most Holy.



Many people do not seem to understand that this verse is explicitly saying ( 'indicating', in the 'grammar of the language' ) that the 490 years are a single - continuous - unbroken - span of time.

:)
So, the orthodox unbelieving Jews have stopped sinning today? How can that be while they still reject Jesus of Nazareth as The Savior? That's what that "to make an end of sins" is about.

Have the unbelieving Jews been part of that "to make reconciliation for iniquity" that Jesus did on His cross? No again, they still reject Him today.

Has that "to bring in everlasting righteousness" already been fulfilled in Jerusalem and for the Jews today? Surely I don't need to answer that. This isn't looking good at all for those who think the 70 weeks has already been fulfilled.

The rest is just as simple, showing that has not been completed for Jerusalem and the Jews yet today, and that is who that 70 weeks prophecy was especially about.

Some so strongly want... to believe a doctrine of man is true, that they will deny the common sense simplicity of written Scripture.
 
Jan 7, 2015
6,057
78
0
#55
Come on man, you know that's silly reasoning.
I know, that's why you should stop with the imaginary missing week doctrine, and the imaginary future temple to be rebuilt doctrine, and the imaginary future man who sits in the imaginary future temple where he places the imaginary future false idol, to fulfill the imaginary future AOD in the imaginary 7 year tribulation period. LOL! :)
 
G

GaryA

Guest
#56
So, the orthodox unbelieving Jews have stopped sinning today? How can that be while they still reject Jesus of Nazareth as The Savior? That's what that "to make an end of sins" is about.

Have the unbelieving Jews been part of that "to make reconciliation for iniquity" that Jesus did on His cross? No again, they still reject Him today.

Has that "to bring in everlasting righteousness" already been fulfilled in Jerusalem and for the Jews today? Surely I don't need to answer that. This isn't looking good at all for those who think the 70 weeks has already been fulfilled.

The rest is just as simple, showing that has not been completed for Jerusalem and the Jews yet today, and that is who that 70 weeks prophecy was especially about.

Some so strongly want... to believe a doctrine of man is true, that they will deny the common sense simplicity of written Scripture.
Daniel 9:

[SUP]24[/SUP] Seventy weeks are determined upon thy people and upon thy holy city, to finish the transgression, and to make an end of sins, and to make reconciliation for iniquity, and to bring in everlasting righteousness, and to seal up the vision and prophecy, and to anoint the most Holy.



You are not properly understanding "just what exactly" - nor the "sense and tense" of - the things listed in this verse.

Here is one explanation I made in the past for "to make an end of sins" -- does it make any sense to you?

The phrase 'to make an end of sins' has nothing to do with 70 A.D. or the Romans destroying the Temple. What the phrase is referring to was accomplished by the crucifixion and resurrection of Christ. It is not referring to a point in time when there would be no more sins committed ever again. It is referring to the [ 'spiritual' ] "process" by which sins were made-of-no-effect ( Romans 6:6;8:2 ) -- in the same sense of death being "swallowed up in victory" in 1 Corinthians 15:54.

To try to explain it another way --- the words 'to make an end of sins' are referring to the "setting up for the fall of" sins - the 'causation' of the ultimate "end of sins" by virtue of the "robbing sin of its power"...

Christ accomplished this in the middle of the 70th week.

:)
Christ accomplished the things in the list during His First Coming -- including:

"to seal up the vision and prophecy" ( of Daniel ) -- i.e. - the 70 weeks prophecy and the vision that the 70 weeks prophecy was given as an answer to.

This means that the 70 weeks prophecy is fulfilled - finished - completed. All 70 weeks - all 490 years - as a single continuous unbroken span of time - are past history...

Do you know how Christ fulfilled this very one thing in the list?

He did so by fulfilling all of the other things in the list. This is 'defined' in the verse itself. Does this make sense?

:)
 

Ahwatukee

Senior Member
Mar 12, 2015
11,159
2,373
113
#57
I know, that's why you should stop with the imaginary missing week doctrine, and the imaginary future temple to be rebuilt doctrine, and the imaginary future man who sits in the imaginary future temple where he places the imaginary future false idol, to fulfill the imaginary future AOD in the imaginary 7 year tribulation period. LOL! :)
Tell me InSpirit, what do you think about the following, since you don't believe that God can fulfill that last seven years at a future time?:

================================================

He went to Nazareth, where he had been brought up, and on the Sabbath day he went into the synagogue, as was his custom. He stood up to read, and the scroll of the prophet Isaiah was handed to him. Unrolling it, he found the place where it is written:
“The Spirit of the Lord is on me, because he has anointed me to proclaim good news to the poor. He has sent me to proclaim freedom for the prisoners and recovery of sight for the blind, to set the oppressed free, to proclaim the year of the Lord’s favor.”


Then he rolled up the scroll, gave it back to the attendant and sat down. The eyes of everyone in the synagogue were fastened on him. He began by saying to them, “Today this scripture is fulfilled in your hearing.”

===============================================

Now, here is the actual prophecy that Jesus read from in Isaiah:

"The Spirit of the Sovereign Lord is on me, because the Lord has anointed me to proclaim good news to the poor. He has sent me to bind up the brokenhearted, to proclaim freedom for the captives and release from darkness for the prisoners,to proclaim the year of the Lord’s favor and the day of vengeance of our God, to comfort all who mourn, "

If you will notice, when Jesus read the scripture from Isaiah, which was over 700 years prior to its fulfillment, he left off the part that I have underlined above. And the reason that he did this, was because that part of the prophecy regarding God's "day of vengeance" had not yet been fulfilled at the time he read it and is in fact still future. There is an example right there of God fulfilling prophecy in multiple stages. So why do you have a hard time believing that God could fulfill sixty-nine of the seven year periods and hold the last seven years to be fulfilled at a future time?
 
Jan 7, 2015
6,057
78
0
#58
Tell me InSpirit, what do you think about the following, since you don't believe that God can fulfill that last seven years at a future time?:

================================================

He went to Nazareth, where he had been brought up, and on the Sabbath day he went into the synagogue, as was his custom. He stood up to read, and the scroll of the prophet Isaiah was handed to him. Unrolling it, he found the place where it is written:
“The Spirit of the Lord is on me, because he has anointed me to proclaim good news to the poor. He has sent me to proclaim freedom for the prisoners and recovery of sight for the blind, to set the oppressed free, to proclaim the year of the Lord’s favor.”


Then he rolled up the scroll, gave it back to the attendant and sat down. The eyes of everyone in the synagogue were fastened on him. He began by saying to them, “Today this scripture is fulfilled in your hearing.”

===============================================

Now, here is the actual prophecy that Jesus read from in Isaiah:

"The Spirit of the Sovereign Lord is on me, because the Lord has anointed me to proclaim good news to the poor. He has sent me to bind up the brokenhearted, to proclaim freedom for the captives and release from darkness for the prisoners,to proclaim the year of the Lord’s favor and the day of vengeance of our God, to comfort all who mourn, "

If you will notice, when Jesus read the scripture from Isaiah, which was over 700 years prior to its fulfillment, he left off the part that I have underlined above. And the reason that he did this, was because that part of the prophecy regarding God's "day of vengeance" had not yet been fulfilled at the time he read it and is in fact still future. There is an example right there of God fulfilling prophecy in multiple stages. So why do you have a hard time believing that God could fulfill sixty-nine of the seven year periods and hold the last seven years to be fulfilled at a future time?
I covered that in my OP where Jesus declared when that event and that tribulation "days of vengeance" would begin starting with the destruction of Jerusalem and the Temple in 70 ad.=AOD, but would be ongoing on the Jews until the times of the Gentiles be fulfilled (symbolic 42 months)

Notice Jesus spoke of when these days of God’s vengeance and wrath would begin for Israel, which is right after the destruction of Jerusalem in 70 a.d. shown in Luke 21:22-24 “For these be the days of vengeance, that all things which are written may be fulfilled.[SUP]23 [/SUP]But woe unto them that are with child, and to them that give suck, in those days! for there shall be great distress in the land, and wrath upon this people. (this people= the children of Israel)
[SUP]24 [/SUP]And they shall fall by the edge of the sword, and shall be led away captive into all nations: and Jerusalem shall be trodden down of the Gentiles, until the times of the Gentiles be fulfilled.”

And that is what is the main stumbling block for you guys, that is in your mind the time mentioned in Revelation as 42 months must be literal and taken at face value. But when you understand the starting point of the first tribulation to the Jews, and the point where the fullness of the Gentiles comes= 6th seal. Then you might just rethink your whole theology is not based on a compacted 7 year period, and neither is the book of Revelation just about a small 3 and half year period, or 42 months.

If you can accept the truth that the AOD happened in 70 ad, then you can understand how that time has to be symbolic of time based on this ......Daniel 12:11-12 "And from the time that the daily sacrifice shall be taken away, and the abomination that maketh desolate set up, there shall be a thousand two hundred and ninety days. (1,290 days)[SUP]12 [/SUP]Blessed is he that waiteth, and cometh to the thousand three hundred and five and thirty days.(1335 days) [SUP]13 [/SUP]But go thou thy way till the end be: for thou shalt rest, and stand in thy lot at the end of the days."

So understanding the start point in 70 ad. till Daniel being told he will stand in his lot, or inheritance at the end of those days also tells you this time cannot be taken at face value, but rather it must be a sign of time, or symbolic of time.
 
Jan 7, 2015
6,057
78
0
#59
I'll post this old post on the 42 months as a sign of time here as well....

Many believe the 42 months mentioned in Revelation should be taken literally, like a literal 3 and a half year tribulation period. But I believe the 42 months is a sign (symbolism) of time which should be spiritually discerned.

Let’s look at why this 42 months, or 1,260 days is not a literal 3 and half years, but is rather symbolic of time. In Revelation 12:5-6 we read “
[SUP]5 [/SUP]And she brought forth a man child, who was to rule all nations with a rod of iron: and her child was caught up unto God, and to his throne.

[SUP]6 [/SUP]And the woman fled into the wilderness, where she hath a place prepared of God, that they should feed her there a thousand two hundred and threescore days.” (1,260 days or 42 months)

Most would agree this verse is speaking about the birth of Jesus Christ, and his being caught up to God, and the woman being the sign of the spiritual Israel, because these are those who “ have the testimony of Jesus Christ” as seen in Rev. 12:17.

But no matter who you believe the woman represents, the timing of when she fled into the wilderness is shown to be right after the “man-child” Jesus was caught up to God and to His throne.”

This time is confirmed again here in
Revelation 12:14 “And to the woman were given two wings of a great eagle, that she might fly into the wilderness, into her place, where she is nourished for a time, times, and half a time and, from the face of the serpent.” So now we have this same 1,260 days also shown as “time, times, and half a time” which is also mentioned in the book of Daniel 12:7.

This prophecy given to Daniel had to do with a “time of trouble such as the world has never seen” (Daniel 12:1) Which Jesus also mentioned in
Matthew 24:21 concerning the great tribulation following right after the destruction of Jerusalem in 70 ad. And this time period would run all the way to the redemption of Gods people as Daniel was also told in Daniel chapter 12… “at that time thy people shall be delivered, everyone that shall be found written in the book of Life.”

And then there is mention of the resurrection as mentioned here in Daniel 12:2 “
[SUP]2 [/SUP]And many of them that sleep in the dust of the earth shall awake, some to everlasting life, and some to shame and everlasting contempt.”


Then this time is confirmed in Daniel 12:7 “
[SUP]7 [/SUP]And I heard the man clothed in linen, which was upon the waters of the river, when he held up his right hand and his left hand unto heaven, and sware by him that liveth for ever that it shall be for a time, times, and an half; and when he shall have accomplished to scatter the power of the holy people, all these things shall be finished.”


So according to the word of the Lord, all those things mentioned to Daniel shall be finished in that same time period.

Now let’s look at how this time period is also shown as the same amount of time given to the fullness of the Gentiles.
Jesus spoke of “after the tribulation of those days” in accordance with the tribulation period of the Jews as it also relates the fullness of the Gentiles. (“that all things which are written may be fulfilled” Luke 21:22)

In
Luke 21:24 Jesus says “ And they(Jews) shall fall by the edge of the sword, and shall be led away captive into all nations: and Jerusalem shall be trodden down of the Gentiles, until the times of the Gentiles be fulfilled.”


So how long was the times of the Gentiles? Well, were given that time as well in scripture.


Revelation 11:2 “But the court which is without the temple leave out, and measure it not; for it is given unto the Gentiles: and the holy city shall they tread under foot forty and two months.

This confirms the Gentile ingathering period, the tribulation of those days, and all those things being fulfilled as listed in the book of Daniel could not possibly be a literal 42 months, or 1,260 days, but rather it is a sign of time.

We also know by Paul’s words that this time of the Gentiles being fulfilled would be marked by ungodliness being removed from Jacob.

Romans 11:25 “For I would not, brethren, that ye should be ignorant of this mystery, lest ye should be wise in your own conceits; that blindness in part is happened to Israel, until the fulness of the Gentiles be come in.”

And finally one more confirmation that this 1,260 days is symbolic is found in Daniel 12:10-13 “Many shall be purified, and made white, and tried; but the wicked shall do wickedly: and none of the wicked shall understand; but the wise shall understand.

[SUP]11 [/SUP]And from the time that the daily sacrifice shall be taken away, and the abomination that maketh desolate set up, there shall be a thousand two hundred and ninety days. (1,290 days)
[SUP]12 [/SUP]Blessed is he that waiteth, and cometh to the thousand three hundred and five and thirty days.(1,335 days)
[SUP]13 [/SUP]But go thou thy way till the end be: for thou shalt rest, and stand in thy lot at the end of the days.

We know by Jesus’ words, scripture, and history when the abomination of desolation was set up, and when Jerusalem was destroyed in 70 ad. And by these verses above, and the numbers of days given to the end above, that the 42 months, or 1,260 days cannot possibly be a literal amount of time, but rather symbolic.


 
P

popeye

Guest
#60
Then you have to spiritualize the mark,human destruction,marine life,flying scorpions,hail of fire,Babylon,billions of martyrs ,the white horses,etc,etc.