Just in case it was not clear, the meaning intended here is that all four phrases in blue are referring to the same 'event'.
I disagree that [the contents of]
verse 1 and [the contents of]
verse 2 are speaking of identical things.
--
verse 1 is speaking solely of our Rapture (in its two phrases)
--
verse 2 is Paul basically telling them not to be persuaded by anyone telling them "the Day of the Lord
IS PRESENT" (it wasn't)
--most versions showing that the Greek there in
verse 2 refers to
"the Day of the Lord" (rather than the wording of "the Day of Christ" [which phrase indeed refers to something
distinct from the phrase "the Day of the Lord"]--and when we grasp that the following phrase is,
"IS PRESENT [perfect tense]," then "the DOTL" is the
only one that makes
sense to the
context: "the DOTL" takes place ENTIRELY "
upon the earth" (not so, with "the Day of Christ")
--in every place where the phrase
"IN THAT DAY" is used in the same contexts as the phrase
"the Day of the Lord," they refer to
the SAME thing (the same TIME PERIOD), and such is the case with THIS
2Th1&2 context (both chpts) as well, and this is how we can be
certain that the phrase "the DOTL" here in 2Th2 indeed means a "time period" (which unfolds upon the earth)
--verse 3, then, is speaking of the time period from the verse IMMEDIATELY PRECEDING [
VERSE 2] (this is the grammatically-correct way of reading this), and
not reaching way back
over and PAST v.2 to grab v.1's "[noun-]event" in order to ascertain what
v.3 is actually speaking about, and just what Paul is conveying here
...this is just for starters...