To KJV-Onlyist.

  • Christian Chat is a moderated online Christian community allowing Christians around the world to fellowship with each other in real time chat via webcam, voice, and text, with the Christian Chat app. You can also start or participate in a Bible-based discussion here in the Christian Chat Forums, where members can also share with each other their own videos, pictures, or favorite Christian music.

    If you are a Christian and need encouragement and fellowship, we're here for you! If you are not a Christian but interested in knowing more about Jesus our Lord, you're also welcome! Want to know what the Bible says, and how you can apply it to your life? Join us!

    To make new Christian friends now around the world, click here to join Christian Chat.
Jan 8, 2009
7,576
23
0
Maybe you should learn Greek and Hebrew so you can prove to me that the KJV is inaccuate.
eh, this one had me guessing:

Lev 12:8 And if she be not able to bring a lamb, then she shall bring two turtles,


thankfully, modern versions have corrected this error, and put turtle doves.
 
Jan 8, 2009
7,576
23
0
The King James has made some major errors in translation. The following are just a few examples. Compare the KJV reading with that of the NIV:
Isaiah 45:7
KJV: I form the light, and create darkness: I make peace, and create evil: I the LORD do all these things.
NIV: I form the light and create darkness, I bring prosperity and create disaster; I, the LORD, do all these things.
Amos 3:6
KJV: Shall a trumpet be blown in the city, and the people not be afraid? shall there be evil in a city, and the LORD hath not done it?
NIV: When a trumpet sounds in a city, do not the people tremble? When disaster comes to a city, has not the LORD caused it?
Luke 13:24 and 2 Timothy 2:24
Two distinct Greek words are both rendered "strive". The term in Luke has the sense "to strive to achieve" while the word in 2 Timothy has the sense of "to quarrel."
KJV: Strive to enter in at the strait gate: for many, I say unto you, will seek to enter in, and shall not be able.
KJV: And the servant of the Lord must not strive; but be gentle unto all men, apt to teach, patient.
NIV: Make every effort to enter through the narrow door, because many, I tell you, will try to enter and will not be able to.
NIV: And the Lord's servant must not quarrel; instead, he must be kind to everyone, able to teach, not resentful.
Daniel 11:9
KJV: So the king of the south shall come into his kingdom, and shall return into his own land.
Hebrew, my translation; cf. NIV: And he [the king of the north] will come into the kingdom of the king of the south and will return to his land.
1 Thessalonians 5:22
KJV: Abstain from all appearance of evil. NIV: Avoid every kind of evil.
http://www.theology.edu/journal/volume1/tr.htm
 
Jan 8, 2009
7,576
23
0
www.dbts.edu/journals/1999/Combs.pdf


This is by :

Dr. Combs is Academic Dean and Professor of New Testament at Detroit Baptist
Theological Seminary in Allen Park, MI

Probably the most indisputable translation error in the
KJV is found
Hebrews 10:23,

Let us hold fast the profession of
our faith without wavering; (for he is

faithful that promised;)
The phrase “profession of
our faith” should be “profession of our hope.”
Everyone concedes that the actual Greek word is
hope (ejlpiv"), not faith

(
pivsti"); hope is found in all manuscripts and all editions of the TR.

Hope
and faith are two entirely different words, so one cannot sincerely
argue that the translators simply decided on “faith” as the correct translation
at this point. Besides, the Greek word for
hope (ejlpiv") is used 52
others times in the NT and in
every case the translators of the KJV rendered
it “hope,” not “faith.” How this error slipped past the translators is
unclear; nevertheless, it is an indisputable error in the
KJV.
Another problem is found in Acts 19:37, where the
KJV says:

For ye have brought hither these men, which are neither robbers of
churches, nor yet blasphemers of your goddess.
The word translated “robbers of churches” should be “robbers of temples.”
The Greek word, which is found in all manuscripts and all editions
of the TR, describes someone who robs temples
(iJerovsulo"), not
churches. In the context of Acts 19, Paul and his companions at Ephesus
find themselves in the midst of a riot instigated by Demetrius (v. 24)
and his fellow silvermiths, who are upset that Paul’s preaching against
idolatry will diminish their profits from the “silver shrines for Diana” (v.
24) they sell for a living. In trying to quiet the riot, the “townclerk” (v.
35) argues that Demetrius and his friends have no basis for the commotion
they are causing since the two Christians they have detained, Gaius
and Aristarchus (v. 29), are “neither robbers of churches, nor yet blasphemers
of your goddess.” The townclerk’s point is that these men must
be released since they have obviously not robbed the
temple of Diana;
besides, there were no church buildings to rob in Ephesus. “Robbers of

churches” is simply an erroneous translation.
21
 
G

greatkraw

Guest
OK, quoting Dr. Brown's article again..



How can you argue with these facts?

EASILY

BIGGEST DIFFERENCES BETWEEN TRANSLATIONS ARE IN THE UNDERLYING GREEK TEXT

THE DEAD SEA SCROLLS SHED ZERO LIGHT ON THE GREEK

THEY WERE ALL HEBREW OLD TESTAMENT AND EXTRA BIBLICAL SCROLLS

The modern perversions are largely based on 2 manuscripts one of which was found in a trash can; the other was found collecting dust in the Vatican and was NEVER used when translating the Vulgate
 
G

greatkraw

Guest
of course they largely agree with the textus receptus because what we are discussing is the differences

look up 1 Timothy 3 16 on bible CC

some say God was manifest in the flesh; some say He was manifest in the flesh

which manuscripts say which?

while you are on bible CC(in parrallel mode) check out 1 John 5 7 and 1 John 5 8
 
M

Maranatha_Yeshua

Guest
EASILY

BIGGEST DIFFERENCES BETWEEN TRANSLATIONS ARE IN THE UNDERLYING GREEK TEXT

THE DEAD SEA SCROLLS SHED ZERO LIGHT ON THE GREEK

THEY WERE ALL HEBREW OLD TESTAMENT AND EXTRA BIBLICAL SCROLLS

The modern perversions are largely based on 2 manuscripts one of which was found in a trash can; the other was found collecting dust in the Vatican and was NEVER used when translating the Vulgate
So the King James doesn't have the Old Testament in it? (Which by the way is poorly translated from Hebrew/Aramaic)

And you didn't respond to the point, in the past 400 years we've improved in Greek/Hebrew/Aramaic enabling us to make BETTER translations.
 
Jan 31, 2009
2,225
11
0
I have a question. Do any of you believe that a Christian is a child or a son of God. If you do then you don't believe the NIV is accurate. Let me explain.

For God so loved the world, that He gave His only begotten Son, that whosoever believeth in Him should not perish, but have everlasting life. John 3:16 KJV

For God so loved the world that he gave his one and only Son, that whoever believes in him, shall not perish, but have eternal life John 3:16 NIV

If you believe that Jesus is God's one and only Son, then how could you be a child of God? Does the Bible say that a Christian is God's son?

Behold, what manner of love the Father hath bestowed upon us, that we should be called the sons of God....1 John 3:1

Beloved, now we the sons of God........1 John 3:2

That ye may be blameless and harmless the sons of God...........Philippians 2:15

For as many as are led by the Spirit of God, they are the sons of God. Romans 8:14

That the sons of God saw the daughters of men that they were fair....Genesis 6:2

Now there was a day when the sons of God came to present themselves before the LORD........Job 1:6


Jesus is the only begotten Son, meaning he was the only Son that always was. He was God's Son from the beginning.
good point you have raised here Humblespirit.
 
Jan 31, 2009
2,225
11
0
Then why do you condemn me for having a translation of the Word in my language?

where have I condemned thee, only thing I have said is that if you want your version then so be it but dont tear apart or attack the translation that Was the english Word of God for almost 400 years now
 
Jan 31, 2009
2,225
11
0
That's because you can't argue with facts, and the facts are that it is impossible to perfectly translate one language into another. You can just do as best as you can, but there will always be discrepancies.

with man this is impossible but with God all things are possible, it amazes me that people can believe that God inspired all the writers of the orginal text, to have an infaliable manuscript, but he can't inspired translators to come up with a infaliable translation
 
Jan 31, 2009
2,225
11
0
OK, quoting Dr. Brown's article again..



How can you argue with these facts?
i can not believe that a person with the title doctor would say that the dead sea scrolls were true, there where large pieces of paper missing all through the scrolls and they had to use another manuscript to fill in the gaps and one that they used were the minority text which was consider corrupt amongst many of the people that knows far more about this then any one in this forum. saying the dead sea scrolls in the text you used would be like reading these scriptures

Joh 3:15That whosoever should not perish, but have eternal life.Joh 3:16For God that he gave his only begotten Son, that whosoever should not perish, but have everlasting life.Joh 3:17For God sent not his to condemn the world; but that through him might be saved.Joh 3:18He that believeth on him is but he that already, because he hath not believed of the only begotten Son of God.Joh 3:19And this is , that light is come into the world, and men loved , because their deeds were evil.


Joh 3:15That whosoever believeth in him should not perish, but have eternal life.Joh 3:16For God so loved the world, that he gave his only begotten Son, that whosoever believeth in him should not perish, but have everlasting life.Joh 3:17For God sent not his Son into the world to condemn the world; but that the world through him might be saved.Joh 3:18He that believeth on him is not condemned: but he that believeth not is condemned already, because he hath not believed in the name of the only begotten Son of God.Joh 3:19And this is the condemnation, that light is come into the world, and men loved darkness rather than light, because their deeds were evil.
 
Last edited:
Feb 3, 2010
1,238
3
0
Many Bible translators misinterpreted the ancient Hebrew text - even Rabbis and Jerome

Moses with horns, by Michaelangelo
Due to a statement towards the end of the book of Exodus (at 34:29-35), in which Moses is depicted as having been disfigured due to his direct encounter with God, various traditions grew up as to what the disfigurement was. Jonathan Kirsch, in his book Moses: A Life, thought that, since Moses subsequently had to wear a veil to hide it, the disfigurement was a sort of "divine radiation burn".
There is one longstanding early tradition that Moses grew horns, derived from a mistranslation of the Hebrew phrase "karnu panav" ???? ????. The root ??? may be read as either "horn" or "ray", as in "ray of light". "Panav" ???? translates as "his face". If interpreted correctly those two words form an expression which means that he was enlightened, and many rabbinical studies explain that the knowledge that was revealed to him made his face metaphorically shine with enlightenment, and not that it suddenly sported a pair of horns. The Septuagint properly translates the Hebrew word ??? as ??????????, 'was glorified', but Jerome translated it as cornuta, 'horned', and it was the latter image that became the more popular. This tradition survived from the first centuries AD well into the Renaissance. Many artists, including Michelangelo in a famed sculpture, depicted Moses with horns.
 
Jan 31, 2009
2,225
11
0
I'm sure God is up there facepalming and thinking to Himself...if all the time and energy they spend shooting facts back and forth and bickering over semantics was focused elsewhere, they probably would have solvd world hunger by now...
if you believe what you just said then why are you still here
 
Jan 31, 2009
2,225
11
0
And what of the word "brother". Do you believe that the commandment not to be angry (even without cause) applies to all or only those whom we could consider brothers?
Matthew just written to the Jews, the Gospel was taken to the jews first then to the gentiles so when Brother is used here and as well as many other places, is it referring to the Jewish nations, which also consider one another as " brother "
 
Jan 31, 2009
2,225
11
0
Hello all I am new here, and would just like to introduce myself. My name is Travis I am a born again believer I pastor which to God be the Glory for I know I am not worthy of such an exalted privilege.I love the King James version, I also Love the NLT what caught my heart when reading this post was this. Romans1:28-29 And even as they did not like to retain God in their knowledge, God gave them over to a reprobate mind, to do those things which are not convenient; Being filled with all unrighteousness, fornication, wickedness, covetousness, maliciousness; full of envy, murder, debate,deceit, malignity; whisperers,


Why do these small things even matter when the simple truths are so simple? I posted this with love and a heart for Christ. If we could all just realize were supposed to be one body and not separate from the vine
I believe we will all be fine . In Christ, Brother Travis.

Philippians4:13 I can do all things through Christ which strengtheneth me.
well I wonder how the disciples worked out their issues between circumcision , and uncircumcision. in acts when they all got together to work it out then came away all in one accordance, actuall you do bring up a good point though. if we only had one authorized translation like we did for about 350 years then there would be no need for ten pages of debate, this would be another reason all the new preversions is wrong
 
G

greatkraw

Guest
So the King James doesn't have the Old Testament in it? (Which by the way is poorly translated from Hebrew/Aramaic)

And you didn't respond to the point, in the past 400 years we've improved in Greek/Hebrew/Aramaic enabling us to make BETTER translations.
English is not your first language?

I said the major differerences are in the new Testament Greek

Therefore: any differences in the Old Testament are MINOR differences

Remember the people who translated the KJV in 1611
were 400 years closer to the original than we are

why do people in the 21st century say "We NOW KNOW..........."

and while they are doing it they are deliberately ignoring the documented records of eye witnesses

(this phenomenon applies to many areas)

You wanna know the BEST experts in what the original Hebrew means?

The translators of the Septuagent around 300BC

they were only a few centuries removed from the original autographs; not millennia
 
M

Maranatha_Yeshua

Guest
English is not your first language?

I said the major differerences are in the new Testament Greek

Therefore: any differences in the Old Testament are MINOR differences

Remember the people who translated the KJV in 1611
were 400 years closer to the original than we are

why do people in the 21st century say "We NOW KNOW..........."

and while they are doing it they are deliberately ignoring the documented records of eye witnesses

(this phenomenon applies to many areas)

You wanna know the BEST experts in what the original Hebrew means?

The translators of the Septuagent around 300BC

they were only a few centuries removed from the original autographs; not millennia
Yes, you said the major differences are in the New Testament which is not true, the Old Testament is just as corrupt if not more. You really can't argue with facts, you're arguments are just silly.
 
G

greatkraw

Guest
Yes, you said the major differences are in the New Testament which is not true, the Old Testament is just as corrupt if not more.
there may be translation issues but they agree on the underlying txt do they not

I am happy to be corrected

As I said, the Septuagent shows how the rabbies viewed things in @300BC

for intance Almah definitely equals virgin
 
M

Maranatha_Yeshua

Guest
there may be translation issues but they agree on the underlying txt do they not

I am happy to be corrected

As I said, the Septuagent shows how the rabbies viewed things in @300BC

for intance Almah definitely equals virgin
We aren't arguing about the Septuagint. The point is, we have improved over the last 400 years and are able to make better translations than the KJV.
 
Jan 22, 2010
1,022
1
0
Isaiah 45:7
KJV: I form the light, and create darkness: I make peace, and create evil: I the LORD do all these things.​

Actually, in this case the KJV got the verse accurately.
 
G

greatkraw

Guest
We aren't arguing about the Septuagint. The point is, we have improved over the last 400 years and are able to make better translations than the KJV.
i actually agree with that but it starts with choosing the best text

KJV

'and the earth was without form and void'

can be better rendered

'but the earth had become shapeless and empty'

I have said many times;

give me a new translation

BUT

use the majority manuscripts

BTW the Septuagint is a very useful reference

it shows that the RSV had zero justification for translating almah as 'young woman'