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no the Niv also added words But doesn't show these addition , when the JKB added words they put those words in italics. I can show this in the verse that Jesus quoted about the oxen threadeth out the corn in the old testament this verse corn was italicised in the KJb but not in the Niv , But with out it, it would read the oxen threadeth out. but by the new testament corn was there so the Niv and the Kjb both added corn the I think the niv may have used grain, but only the KJb showed that they added this, also anytime we tranlate, some words are lost or added but to translate clearly , they need to be added , example of this is: in english the object we use to brush our teeth is a "toothbush", but that is tranlated in spanish as" a brush for the teeth" they both mean the same a compound word in one language , however 4 words to describe the same object in another language, but does not make the spanish translation wrong for using more words . also some claim the KJB to be wrong for using the word corn , but we misunderstand what corn is , it can mean grain it is not always that yellow stuff that grows on ears, it can stand for many grains. as far as I know nothing was paraphased in the King James translation, for the King James is the only word for word translation That i know of mant of the new ones are paraphased translation. tha reason i referr to the Niv alot is this is the one that i have crossed referenced to mostly
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H
In Psalm 8:5 there is a very familiar quotation in the KJV: "For Thou hast made him a little lower than the angels." The Hebrew word here is actually "Elohim" which means "gods." The KJV translators were aware of this fact, for they correctly translated this word in Psalm 138:1 --- "Before the gods will I sing praise unto thee."
In John 20:17 the KJV has Jesus saying to Mary, "Touch Me not." It seems He is here forbidding what He has elsewhere allowed (Matthew 28:9). However, the Greek word employed here actually means "to cling to." Jesus was not forbidding Mary to touch Him, but rather forbidding her to cling on to Him as if to prevent His departure --- a completely different concept.
In Romans 3:25 the KJV speaks of "the remission of sins." The Greek word actually refers to "passing over" sins, not the canceling or remitting of them. The KJV translators confused two similar Greek words here.
In I Kings 10:28 the word "Kue" is translated "linen yarn" in the KJV. This is incorrect. Actually, "Kue" was a location in Cilicia where Solomon purchased his horses. This is a fact which has been verified by archaeologists, but of which the KJV translators were painfully unaware.
In I Chronicles 5:26 the KJV translators present Pul and Tilgath-pilneser as being two separate kings of Assyria. Actually, these were two names for the same man, as archaeological discoveries have proven.
A great deal of unnecessary confusion is created in a translation when a name or place is spelled in more than one way. This leaves the reader wondering who or what is meant when a name or place is rendered three or four different ways in a translation or version. Notice the following examples in the KJV:
These are just a few of the examples from that website a posted about the addition or changing of words, the problems with the text due to misinformation, and even the manipulation of text for worldly things....all from the KJV.
In John 20:17 the KJV has Jesus saying to Mary, "Touch Me not." It seems He is here forbidding what He has elsewhere allowed (Matthew 28:9). However, the Greek word employed here actually means "to cling to." Jesus was not forbidding Mary to touch Him, but rather forbidding her to cling on to Him as if to prevent His departure --- a completely different concept.
In Romans 3:25 the KJV speaks of "the remission of sins." The Greek word actually refers to "passing over" sins, not the canceling or remitting of them. The KJV translators confused two similar Greek words here.
In I Kings 10:28 the word "Kue" is translated "linen yarn" in the KJV. This is incorrect. Actually, "Kue" was a location in Cilicia where Solomon purchased his horses. This is a fact which has been verified by archaeologists, but of which the KJV translators were painfully unaware.
In I Chronicles 5:26 the KJV translators present Pul and Tilgath-pilneser as being two separate kings of Assyria. Actually, these were two names for the same man, as archaeological discoveries have proven.
A great deal of unnecessary confusion is created in a translation when a name or place is spelled in more than one way. This leaves the reader wondering who or what is meant when a name or place is rendered three or four different ways in a translation or version. Notice the following examples in the KJV:
- Sheth & Seth
- Agar & Hagar
- Jeremiah, Jeremias & Jeremie
- Jonah, Jona & Jonas
- Hosea & Osee
- Isaiah, Esaias & Esay
- Judas, Judah, Juda & Jude
- Areopagus & Mars' Hill
These are just a few of the examples from that website a posted about the addition or changing of words, the problems with the text due to misinformation, and even the manipulation of text for worldly things....all from the KJV.
M
Just to comment on Elohim, אלהים in Hebrew, that is actually most commonly used to refer to God, but it is plural, so when you speak of God, plurality in power - or the trinitatian would say plurality in persons. But when it's referring to gods, plurality as in gods of the false religion. It is actually debated in some text if Elohim is speaking about angels though. But, the problem with E-Sword or Strong's concordance is, James Strong gives a number of words that the specific word can be defined as. But in the context of Scripture or any sentence, a word only means one thing. So it's not like universal to say Elohim means "gods" period. It depends on the context.
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the KJB which I defend was the Word Of God for almost 400 years now, when You post posts like you have in here You are attacking the Very Word of God, call it what you want , but when You say that the Authorized english translation Of the Holy Scriptures , has been translated wrong , then you have attacked the Holy word of God, you are not saying I am right or wrong but saying that the Word of God is wrong ,it ain't nothing to do with me, Baby.
the Niv is from corrupt manuscript, a little leaven will leaven the whole lump . so you take the word and correct it/or change it will faulty input
Displaying 1 result(s) from the 1828 edition:
LEAVEN, n. lev''n. [L. levo, Eng. to lift.]
1. A mass of sour dough, which, mixed with a larger quantity of dough or paste, produces fermentation in it and renders it light. During the seven days of the passover, no leaven was permitted to be in the houses of the Jews. Ex. 12.
2. Any thing which makes a general change in the mass. It generally means something which corrupts or depraves that with which it is mixed.
Beware of the leaven of the Pharisees and of the Sadducees.
Displaying 1 result(s) from the 1828 edition:
LEAVEN, n. lev''n. [L. levo, Eng. to lift.]
1. A mass of sour dough, which, mixed with a larger quantity of dough or paste, produces fermentation in it and renders it light. During the seven days of the passover, no leaven was permitted to be in the houses of the Jews. Ex. 12.
2. Any thing which makes a general change in the mass. It generally means something which corrupts or depraves that with which it is mixed.
Beware of the leaven of the Pharisees and of the Sadducees.