Has anyone ever checked out
Exodus 3:14 in a Jewish Bible?
The Chabad Translation has "I will be what I will be"
The Stone Chumash has it "I shall be as I shall be."
Rashi rendered it as "I will be what I will be."
The Pentateuch by Hirsch, has it as "I shall be that which I will be."
The Jewish Bibles translate this phrase with a future tense, while Christian Bibles put it in the present tense. [I am]
Were the Christian translators influenced to create a match with
John 8:58 ???
After all, Exodus is part of the Hebrew Scriptures of the Jews. It is really their book. Shouldn't their translation take precedence?
At the preceeding verse,
Exodus 3:13, Moses says.."""Behold, I am going to the sons of Israel, and I will say to them, 'The God of your fathers has sent me to you.' Now they may say to me, 'What is His name?' What shall I say to them?"""
The sons of Israel may ask Moses....'""What is His name?"" because they did not know the God who was speaking to Moses.
IMO God's answer in the future tense..."I will be what I will be" is really a promise by God that in the future he will be who he will prove to be. As we know, God brought the plagues on Egypt, and delivered the sons of Israel from slavery. He promised...and he literally proved that he will be what he will be....God Almighty.