Okay, then, let's take a closer look at the 19 instances of the word "lust", in the Bible. Because if you honestly look at what scripture and the old Greek/Hebrew is saying, you'll notice that the word doesn't mean the same thing every single time it's used.
In the Old Testament we have:
Exodus 15:9 and Psalm 78:18
the word lust here is nepesh, which means breathing and is derived from the word nâphash, which means to breathe.
In Psalm 78:30 the word lust is Ta’ăvâh and means: longing, delight, satisfaction
In Psalm 81:12 the word lust is Sheriyrûwth, which means: twisted
Proverbs 6:25 is châmad which, again, means to delight in
New Testament:
Matthew 5:28 and James 4:2 the word in Greek is ĕpithumĕō and it means: to set the heart upon, long for
Romans 1:27 the word lust is ōrĕxis and means: excitement of the mind, longing after
We have ĕpithumia which means: a longing in these verses:
Romans 7:7
Galations 5:16
James 1:14
James 1:15
2 Peter 1:4
2 Peter 2:10
1 John 2:16 (twice used)
1 John 2:17
And interestingly enough, the word lust, or pathŏs in
1 Thessalonians 4:5
actually means suffering!
Oh, and the Strong's doesn't list a Greek definition for the word lust in 1 Corinthians 10:6.
The Bible does show lust in the context of marriage. Have you not read the Song of Solomon? It is full of love-making, longing, and desire. The very definition of lust! I'm curious, do you think sex is supposed to be a clinical act, with no emotion involved? I mean, if a husband and wife don't crave each other then they probably won't be engaging in the gift that Yahweh gave. Which THEN puts them in a position of sin (1 Corinthians 7:5).
At any rate, in the context of marriage, it is perfectly normal and right to desire the body of one's spouse. To "long for" my husband is not a perversion.
I did not interject or twist scripture to make it what I want it to be. Grab a Strong's Concordance (there's a free one online if you don't have a physical copy) and dig into the verses I've shared. Check out what the original languages meant when they referred to lust. It (usually) just means longing. And depending on the context of the scripture, that longing can be negative or positive.
Look up the other verses that use the same Greek or Hebrew words and you'll see that the Greek words ARE used in other situations that have nothing to do with sex. For example, châmad (lust) being used to describe a whoring woman AND used to describe the "goodly" (lust) clothes that Rebekah put on Jacob.
