Thanks for replying.
Sorry cfultz, didn't see your post until now. Here's my reasoning.
The Meaning of "Eternal."
Many reason that "if the word ‘eternal’ means without end when applied to the future blessedness of believers, it must follow, unless clear evidence is given to the contrary, that this word also means without end when used to describe the future punishment of the lost."
Perhaps, that reasoning comes from the notion that if it means 'perpetual' when it is applied to God, and to His coming Kingdom, and to the saints, then it also must mean the same when applied to Satan and the wicked. When we start to negate its meaning when speaking of the wicked, then we are left in doubt when it comes to Jesus having said that He came to give everlasting life to those belonging to Him. Inasmuch as one can negate it when it comes to the wicked, then it would not be too far fetched to say that one can even negate it when it comes to, at least, the saints.
Nevertheless, we are given clear evidence that the worm/fire of the wicked shall never die/be quenched (Mar 9:44, 46, 48). Of which verses, we are given certain knowledge. Let us take into consideration the word for 'not'. From the Greek, we understand that this word is the absolute negative, as oppose to the subjunctive G3361. From that, we can gather that whatever it negates is absolutely true.
Now, let us take the word for "die" (the same is applied to 'fire' in like manner). In the Greek, it means "to finish life", the very meaning we understand it to be. If we were to couple this with the absolute negative which is present with it, we begin to see that it is saying "their worm shall never finish life". In other words, its life is perpetual. As far as that goes, it can be said, "the fire shall never be put out".
And to understand that it is speaking about the wicked in the Age to come, we should go to where it was originally spoken about in Isaiah 66:22-24. From verse 22 we see the new Heaven and the new Earth being spoken about. Verse 23 speaks about God in the new Jerusalem being worshiped and it would be save to assume that that worship is forevermore. As far as verse 24 goes, there is no indication given that the wicked shall cease to exist. But, it does STATE that their worm shall never cease to live.
A question needing to be answered: if the wicked, at some point, ceases to exist, then what purpose does it serve to say their worm and the fire will never cease to exist (perpetual), when it could have stated "until the wicked are no more"? Yet, it does state that the worm and fire are forevermore.
Thus far, we have "eternal/everlasting" meaning "perpetual" when it comes to the Godhead, to the Age to come, and to the saints. But, on the other hand, is it to change its meaning to "set or proper time" (G2540) in order to accommodate the notion that the wicked will cease to exist? But, if we are given over to the understanding found in Revelation 11:18 that "destroy" does not necessarily mean to "vanquish", inasmuch as people cannot "vanquish" the Earth, then we began to understand that "destroy" means,"to ruin, to thoroughly rot", as per its Greek definition.
Here is your argument: "If aionion describes life which is endless, so must aionios describe endless punishment. This reasoning fails to recognize that what determines the meaning of "eternal" is the object being qualified. If the object is the life granted by God to believers (John 3:16), then the word "eternal" obviously means "unending, everlasting," because the Scripture tells us that the "mortal nature" of believers will be made "immortal" by Christ at His Coming (1 Cor 15:53).
On the other hand, if the object being qualified is the "punishment" or "destruction" of the lost, then "eternal" can only mean "permanent, total, final," because nowhere does the Scripture teach that the wicked will be resurrected immortal to be able to suffer forever. Eternal punishment requires either the natural possession of an immortal nature or the divine bestowal of an immortal nature at the time the punishment is inflicted. Nowhere does the Scripture teach that either of these conditions exists.
This reasoning I find to be wanting: if the wicked is to be resurrected (brought up from the abode of the dead) for judgment, then they must presently exist and thus, already immortal. If they are not immortal, then it can only be concluded that God will re-create their souls for the sole purpose of handing down a sentencing of "die again". Then again, if the soul of any human is not immortal, then even the righteous are dead and according to Ecc, they too are forgotten and are not rewarded, seeing that it is being said that the soul is mortal. It is far more pausable to say that we are immortal, then to say that all souls will have to be re-created for judgment and then the wicked will be turned back into mortal souls so that they can die again. If the soul is mortal, then what purpose does it serve for God to "reanimate" them, if they are already dead?
The punishment of the wicked is eternal both in quality and quantity. It is "eternal" in quality because it belongs to the Age to Come. It is "eternal" in quantity because its results will never end. Like "eternal judgment" (Heb 6:2), "eternal redemption" (Heb 9:12), and "eternal salvation" (Heb 5:9)—all of which are eternal in the results of actions once completed—so "eternal punishment" is eternal in its results: the complete and irreversible destruction of the wicked.
Allow me to dissect Revelation 14:11. In speaking of any man receiving the mark of the beast and being thrown into the lake of fire, it is stated:
Rev 14:11 καιG2532 CONJ - (and) οG3588 T-NSM καπνοςG2586 N-NSM - (the smoke) τουG3588 T-GSM βασανισμουG929 N-GSM - (from the torment) αυτωνG846 P-GPM - (their) αναβαινειG305 V-PAI-3S - (smoke does ascent) ειςG1519 PREP - (into) αιωναςG165 N-APM - (ages) αιωνωνG165 N-GPM - (of ages) καιG2532 CONJ - (and) ουκG3756 PRT-N - (no (absolute negative)) εχουσινG2192 V-PAI-3P - (they do have) αναπαυσινG372 N-ASF - (rest) ημεραςG2250 N-GSF - (of day) καιG2532 CONJ - (and) νυκτοςG3571 N-GSF - (of night) οιG3588 T-NPM προσκυνουντεςG4352 V-PAP-NPM - (those who are worshipping) τοG3588 T-ASN θηριονG2342 N-ASN - (the beast) καιG2532 CONJ - (and) τηνG3588 T-ASF εικοναG1504 N-ASF - (the likeness) αυτουG846 P-GSN - (its) καιG2532 CONJ - (and) ειG1487 COND - (if = soever) τιςG5100 X-NSM - (who) λαμβανειG2983 V-PAI-3S - (whosoever does receive) τοG3588 T-ASN χαραγμαG5480 N-ASN - (the mark) τουG3588 T-GSN ονοματοςG3686 N-GSN - (of the name) αυτουG846 P-GSN - (its) (as if a tatoo of ownership, as used upon Roman slaves)
There are several things to take note of:
1) The present indicative of "smoke does ascent". The present indicative tells us that it is a present action with every indication of continuing unless stopped. As in, "he smokes cigarettes" (implying he smokes now and in the future unless something changes). So, we are given the understanding that the smoke, when the time comes, will continue to ascend unless stopped.
2) We are not given a time frame as to when the smoke shall be stopped, seeing that it shall continue into "ages of ages". This is the same as us saying, "eons upon eons". The same doubling of "age" can also be understood when Scripture speaks about Christ's Kingdom enduring "into the ages of the Age". When Christ's kingdom is set up, it will endure into the ages after that Age (perpetually). Likewise, the smoke of their torment can be understood as lasting "into the ages of all ages" (including the Age to come).
3) From the present indicative of "they do have rest", coupled with the ABSOLUTE NEGATIVE, we understand that they will have absolutely no rest in the present and with every indication of its continuance into the future unless stopped. And we understand from "ages of ages" no indication is given concerning a break. In fact, "of day and night", tells us it will be a continuous moment in eternity, inasmuch as eternity lacks the concept of time.